IS341 – Business
Systems Analysis
Sample Test 3
Chapters 9, 10,
App. A, App. B
1)
Which of the following is a purpose of logical and physical database design?
A)
Structure the data in stable structures that are not likely to change over time
and that have minimal redundancy.
B)
Develop a logical database design that reflects the actual data requirements
that exist in the forms and reports of an information system.
C)
Develop a logical database design from which we can do physical database
design.
D)
Translate a relational database model into a technical file and database
design.
E)
All of the above.
2)
Which of the following is NOT associated with logical and physical database
design?
A)
Structure the data in stable structures that are not likely to change over time
and that have minimal redundancy.
B)
The preparation of a final conceptual model and the implementation of the
database
C)
Develop a logical database design from which we can do physical database
design.
D)
Develop a logical database design that reflects the actual data requirements
that exist in the forms and reports of an information system.
E)
Translate a relational database model into a technical file and database
design.
3)
The most common style for a logical database model is the:
A)
relational database model.
B)
hierarchical database model.
C)
network database model.
D)
object-oriented database model.
E)
hybrid database model.
4)
During logical database design, the work of all systems development team
members is coordinated and shared through:
A)
the project dictionary.
B)
scheduled weekly meetings.
C)
the project leader.
D)
JAD sessions.
E)
walkthroughs.
5)
Which of the following is NOT a key step in logical database modeling and
design?
A)
Combine normalized data requirements from all user interfaces into one
consolidated logical database model.
B)
Compare the consolidated logical database design with the translated E-R model
and produce, through view integration, one final logical database design for
the application.
C)
Model how data flow through an information system, the relationships among the
data flows, and how data come to be stored at specific locations.
D)
Translate the conceptual E-R data model for the application into normalized
data requirements.
E)
Using normalization principles, develop a logical data model for each known
user view for the application.
6)
Combining all normalized user views into one consolidated logical database
model refers to:
A)
normalization.
B)
requirements structuring.
C)
file integration.
D)
view integration.
E)
logic modeling.
7)
During physical design, you consider:
A)
the definitions of each attribute.
B)
the descriptions of where and when data are entered,
retrieved, deleted, and updated.
C)
the expectations for response time and data integrity.
D)
the descriptions of the file and database technologies
to be used.
E)
all of the above.
8)
Key physical database design decisions include:
A)
choosing the storage format for each attribute from
the logical database model.
B)
grouping attributes from the logical database model
into physical records.
C)
arranging related records in secondary memory so that
individual and groups of records can be stored, retrieved, and updated rapidly.
D)
selecting media and structures for storing data to
make access more efficient.
E)
all of the above.
9)
Using the normalized relation notation, an attribute of a relation which is the
primary key of another relation is indicated by:
A)
an underline.
B)
a circle.
C)
a dashed underline.
D)
italics.
E)
a double-lined ellipse.
10)
The primary deliverable from logical database design is:
A)
normalized relations.
B)
design specifications.
C)
an updated Baseline Project Plan.
D)
a list of alternatives design strategies.
E)
a production system.
11)
A data model that represents data in the form of tables or relations is called a(n):
A)
hierarchical database model.
B)
network database model.
C)
relational database model.
D)
hybrid database model.
E)
object-oriented database model.
12)
A named two-dimensional table of data is a(n):
A)
network.
B)
tree structure.
C)
relation.
D)
tuple.
E)
object.
13)
Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding a relation?
A)
Each relation consists of a set of named columns and an arbitrary number of
unnamed rows.
B)
Each column in a relation corresponds to an attribute of that relation.
C)
An entry at the intersection of each row and column has a single value.
D)
Each row in a relation corresponds to an attribute of that relation.
E)
The rows may be interchanged or stored in any sequence.
14)
Assume the structure of a relation is Employee (EmpID,
Name, Dept, Salary). The
number of attributes for this relation would:
A)
be three.
B)
be four.
C)
be five.
D)
be six.
E)
vary depending upon the number of employees.
15)
Which of the following properties of a relation states that an entry at the
intersection of each row and column is single-valued?
A)
Entries in cells are simple.
B)
Entries in columns are from the same set of values.
C)
Each row is unique.
D)
The sequence of rows is insignificant.
E)
The sequence of columns can be interchanged.
16)
A relation that contains a minimum amount of redundancy and allows users to
insert, modify, and delete the rows in a table without errors or
inconsistencies is a(n):
A)
independent relation.
B)
simple relation.
C)
unnormalized relation.
D)
well-structured relation.
E)
derived relation.
17)
The process of converting complex data structures into simple, stable data
structures is referred to as:
A)
normalization.
B)
simplification.
C)
structuring.
D)
process modeling.
E)
relational conversion.
18)
When each nonprimary key attribute is identified by
the whole key, the relation is said to be in at least:
A)
second normal form.
B)
third normal form.
C)
fourth normal form.
D)
fifth normal form.
E)
a relational form.
19)
A particular relationship between two attributes best defines:
A)
context.
B)
functional dependency.
C)
normal form.
D)
structure.
E)
join.
20)
For any relation R, if, for every valid instance of A, that value of A uniquely
determines the value of B:
A)
then a primary dependency exists in the relation.
B)
then A is said to be functionally dependent on B.
C)
then B is said to be functionally dependent on A.
D)
then A and B are candidate keys for the relation.
E)
None of the above is true.
21)
The relation state specifying that nonprimary key
attributes do not depend on other nonprimary key
attributes is:
A)
first normal form.
B)
second normal form.
C)
Boyce-Codd normal form.
D)
third normal form.
E)
fifth normal form.
22)
The dependence of nonprimary key attributes on other nonprimary key attributes best describes a:
A)
relationship dependency.
B)
transitive dependency.
C)
weak attribute.
D)
weak entity.
E)
weak relationship.
23)
A functional dependency between two (or more) nonkey
attributes in a relation defines a:
A)
weak dependency.
B)
partial dependency.
C)
simple dependency.
D)
transitive dependency.
E)
recursive dependency.
24)
An attribute that appears as a nonkey attribute in
one relation and as a primary key attribute (or part of a primary key) in
another relation is a:
A)
foreign key.
B)
candidate key.
C)
pointer.
D)
relationship key.
E)
marker.
25)
If order number serves as the primary key in the order relation and also
appears as a nonkey attribute in the invoice
relation, then order number is said to be a:
A)
foreign key.
B)
candidate key.
C)
pointer.
D)
relationship key.
E)
marker.
26)
The integrity constraint that specifies that the value (or existence) of an
attribute in one relation depends on the value (or existence) of the same
attribute in another relation is called:
A)
foreign integrity.
B)
attribute integrity.
C)
referential integrity.
D)
dependence integrity.
E)
join integrity.
27)
Which of the following statements is true regarding normalization?
A)
Normalization is a top-down process.
B)
Normalization produces a set of well-structured relations that contain all of the
data mentioned in system inputs and outputs developed in human interface
design.
C)
Through the use of anomalies, stable structures are produced.
D)
Normalization is an integrity constraint specifying that the value of an
attribute in one relation depends on the value of the same attribute in another
relation.
E)
Normalization is a coding scheme recognized by system software for representing
organizational data.
28)
The transformation of an E-R diagram into normalized relations and then the
merging of all the relations into one final, consolidated set of relations
requires all of the following steps EXCEPT:
A)
represent entities.
B)
represent relationships.
C)
normalize the relations.
D)
structure requirements.
E)
merge the relations.
29)
Each regular entity type in an E-R diagram is transformed into a:
A)
row in a relation.
B)
column in a relation.
C)
relation.
D)
tuple in a relation.
E)
database.
30)
When transforming an E-R diagram into normalized relations, the identifier of
the entity type becomes:
A)
the primary key of the corresponding relation.
B)
the foreign key in the corresponding relation.
C)
a nonkey attribute in the
corresponding relation.
D)
a secondary key in the corresponding relation.
E)
a homonym in the corresponding relation.
31)
Which of the following properties should be satisfied when the identifier of
the entity type becomes the primary key of the corresponding relation?
A)
The value of the key must uniquely identify every row in the relation.
B)
The key should serve as a foreign key in at least two other relations.
C)
The key must be a composite of a primary key and a secondary key.
D)
The key should be an intelligent key.
E)
The key should allow for null values.
32)
An entity whose primary key depends on the primary key of another entity is
called a:
A)
referential entity.
B)
candidate entity.
C)
transitive entity.
D)
dependent entity.
E)
weak entity.
33)
A binary one-to-many relationship in an E-R diagram is best represented by:
A)
the creation of a separate relation; the primary key
of this new relation is a composite key consisting of the primary key for each
of the two entities in the relationship.
B)
adding the primary key attribute (or attributes) of
the entity on the one side of the relationship as a foreign key in the relation
that is on the many side of the relationship.
C)
adding the primary key attribute (or attributes) of
the entity on the many side of the relationship as a foreign key in the
relation that is on the one side of the relationship.
D)
creating a relation with a composite primary key and nonkey attributes.
E)
none of the above.
34)
For a binary one-to-one relationship between two entities A and B, the
relationship is represented by:
A)
adding the primary key of A as a foreign key of B.
B)
adding the primary key of B as a foreign key of A.
C)
combining the two entities into one relation.
D)
creating a third relation to represent the
relationship between the two entities.
E)
either A or B.
35)
For a unary one-to-one relationship between two entities A and B, the
relationship is represented by:
A)
adding the primary key of A as a foreign key of B.
B)
adding the primary key of B as a foreign key of A.
C)
combining the two entities into one relation.
D)
creating a third relation to represent the
relationship between the two entities.
E)
either A or B.
36)
For a binary many-to-many relationship existing between entity types A and B:
A)
a separate relation C is created; the primary key of
relation C is a composite key consisting of the primary key for each of the two
entities in the relationship.
B)
the primary keys of relation A and relation B become
foreign keys in a new relation C.
C)
secondary keys are used to establish the relationship.
D)
place the primary key of either entity in the relation
for the other entity or do this for both entities.
E)
none of the above.
37) If an associative entity exists, then:
A)
a separate relation C is created; the primary key of
relation C is a composite key consisting of the primary key for each of the two
entities in the relationship.
B)
the primary keys of relation A and relation B become
foreign keys in a new relation C.
C)
secondary keys are used to establish the relationship.
D)
place the primary key of either entity in the relation
for the other entity or do this for both entities.
E)
none of the above should be done.
38)
If a relationship exists among three or more entities, then:
A)
recursive relationships must be established through
the use of recursive foreign keys.
B)
a separate relation with a primary key that is the
composite of the primary keys of each of the participating entities is created.
C)
separate relations are established for each class and
for each of the subclasses.
D)
use the primary key of relation A as a foreign key in
relations B and C.
E)
none of the above is done.
39)
Relationships between instances of a single entity type are referred to as:
A)
binary relationships.
B)
transitive relationships.
C)
recursive relationships.
D)
dependent relationships.
E)
singular relationships.
40)
A many-to-many relationship that associates certain items with their component
items is called a:
A)
binary structure.
B)
bill-of-materials structure.
C)
binary relationship.
D)
ternary relationship.
E)
singular relationship.
41)
A foreign key in a relation that references the primary key values of that same
relation is referred to as a:
A)
secondary key.
B)
recursive foreign key.
C)
composite key.
D)
complex key.
E)
concatenated key.
42)
For a unary M:N relationship:
A)
the entity type is modeled as one relation; a separate
relation is created to represent the M:N relationship; the new relation has a
composite key that consists of two attributes that both take their values from
the same primary key.
B)
the entity type and the M:N relationship are modeled as one relation; a
composite key consisting of two attributes that both take their values from the
same primary key is used as the primary key for the relation.
C)
separate relations for the class and for each subclass
are created; primary and foreign keys are established for each class.
D)
the primary key of the entity on the one side of the
relationship serves as a foreign key in the relation on the many side of the
relationship.
E)
none of the above is true.
43)
Merging relations is also referred to as:
A)
view integration.
B)
view consolidation.
C)
encompassing.
D)
normalizing.
E)
transforming.
44)
"Create a relation with primary key and nonkey
attributes" is the relational representation for which E-R structure?
A)
Weak entity
B)
Regular entity
C)
Gerund
D)
IS-A relationship
E)
Transitive dependency
45) Two different names that are used to
refer to the same data item best defines:
A)
homonym.
B)
synonym.
C)
transitive dependency.
D)
alias.
E)
antonym.
46)
A single name that is used for two or more different attributes best defines:
A)
homonym.
B)
synonym.
C)
transitive dependency.
D)
alias.
E)
antonym.
47)
Using the term "account" to refer to a checking account and also to a
savings account is an example of a(n):
A)
homonym.
B)
synonym.
C)
transitive dependency.
D)
alias.
E)
antonym.
48)
Which of the following best describes a unique sequential number or random
number assigned by the database management system (DBMS) whenever a new record
is added to a table?
A)
Number
B)
Currency
C)
OLE object
D)
Hyperlink
E)
Autonumber
49) The process of splitting or combining
normalized relations into physical tables based on affinity of use of rows and fields best describes:
A)
normalization.
B)
simplification.
C)
denormalization.
D)
data structure.
E)
nullifying.
50)
The smallest unit of named application data recognized by system software is
called a(n):
A)
field.
B)
table.
C)
row.
D)
relation.
E)
entity.
51)
All of the following are objectives when choosing data types EXCEPT:
A)
minimizing storage space.
B)
representing all possible values.
C)
decrease data quality.
D)
improve data integrity.
E)
support all data manipulations desired on the field.
52)
A field that can be derived from other database fields is called a:
A)
quoted field.
B)
primary field.
C)
hidden field.
D)
calculated field.
E)
none of the above
53)
A default value is:
A)
the value that all fields will take.
B)
the value that a field will take unless otherwise
specified.
C)
a value that is not allowed in a field.
D)
a way to represent null values.
E)
the value that a field always returns to.
54) A data integrity control that restricts
the permissible values for data is called a(n):
A)
input mask.
B)
default value.
C)
range control.
D)
primary key.
E)
candidate key.
55)
A field of data that can be used to located a related field or row of data is
called a(n):
A)
pointer.
B)
key.
C)
entity.
D)
attribute.
E)
index.
56)
All of the following are types of file organizations EXCEPT:
A)
indexed.
B)
sequential.
C)
hashed.
D)
logical.
57)
The process whereby the physical design specifications created by the design
team are turned into working computer code by the programming team is referred
to as:
A)
coding.
B)
testing.
C)
implementation.
D)
code conversion.
E)
production.
58)
The deliverables from the coding, testing, and installation processes include:
A)
the creation of a document that will consolidate the
information that must be considered when implementing a physically distributed
systems design.
B)
structured descriptions and diagrams that outline the
logic contained within each DFD process.
C)
the code, program documentation, test scenarios and
test data, results of program and system testing, user guides, user training
plan, and an installation and conversion plan.
D)
all of the above.
E)
none of the above.
59)
A strategy for training users so they can quickly learn the new system is a(n):
A)
training plan.
B)
installation plan.
C)
user guide.
D)
training curriculum.
E)
electronic performance support system.
60)
Training on the use of the system begins during the early stages of:
A)
the systems analysis phase.
B)
logical design.
C)
implementation.
D)
the systems planning and selection phase.
E)
physical design.
61)
This plan lays out a strategy for moving from the old system to the new.
A)
Systems service request
B)
Installation plan
C)
Training plan
D)
Testing plan
E)
Conversion guide
62)
Activities occurring within maintenance include:
A)
transforming requests into changes.
B)
obtaining maintenance requests.
C)
implementing changes.
D)
designing changes.
E)
all of the above.
63)
An overall test plan is developed during:
A)
systems implementation.
B)
systems analysis.
C)
logical design.
D)
physical design.
E)
systems planning and selection.
64)
Which of the following is the responsibility of testing managers?
A)
Developing testing plans
B)
Integrating testing and development activities in the life cycle
C)
Establishing testing standards
D)
Ensuring that test plans are completed
E)
All of the above
65)
A testing technique in which participants examine program code for predictable
language-specific errors defines:
A)
walkthrough.
B)
inspections.
C)
desk checking.
D)
syntax checking.
E)
integration testing.
66)
The type of testing responsible for determining what the code does is:
A)
a walkthrough.
B)
inspection.
C)
system testing.
D)
syntax checking.
E)
stub testing.
67)
A testing technique in which the program code is sequentially executed manually
by the reviewer is referred to as:
A)
inspection.
B)
system testing.
C)
desk checking.
D)
syntax checking.
E)
stub testing.
68)
Testing each module alone in an attempt to discover any errors that may exist
in the module's code is referred to as:
A)
unit testing.
B)
system testing.
C)
stub testing.
D)
singular testing.
E)
a walkthrough.
69)
The process of bringing together all of the modules that comprise a program for
testing purposes is referred to as:
A)
unity testing.
B)
integration testing.
C)
system testing.
D)
implementation.
E)
stub testing.
70)
The bringing together of all the programs that comprise a system for testing
describes:
A)
unity testing.
B)
integration testing.
C)
system testing.
D)
implementation.
E)
a project walkthrough.
71)
A technique used in testing modules, especially where modules are written and
tested in a top-down fashion, where a few lines of code are used to substitute
for subordinate modules describes:
A)
module testing.
B)
unit testing.
C)
top-down testing.
D)
stub testing.
E)
component-level testing.
72)
The purpose of acceptance testing is to:
A)
determine if new requirements must be added to the
newly completed system.
B)
determine if the system meets user requirements.
C)
determine if the system meets its objectives.
D)
test a completed information system using simulated
data.
E)
test a completed information system using real data.
73)
The most complete acceptance testing will include:
A)
alpha testing, beta testing, and a walkthrough.
B)
beta testing, stub testing, and unit testing.
C)
desk checking, a system audit, and integration
testing.
D)
a system audit, system testing, and integration testing.
E)
alpha testing, beta testing, and a system audit.
74)
The process whereby actual users test a completed information system, the end
result of which is the users' acceptance of it, best defines:
A)
acceptance testing.
B)
alpha testing.
C)
beta testing.
D)
system testing.
E)
end user testing.
75)
User testing of a completed information system using simulated data refers to:
A)
acceptance testing.
B)
alpha testing.
C)
beta testing.
D)
system testing.
E)
stub testing.
76)
User testing of a completed information system using real data in the real user
environment refers to:
A)
acceptance testing.
B)
alpha testing.
C)
beta testing.
D)
system testing.
E)
live testing.
77)
Tests performed during alpha testing that are designed to try to break the
system are:
A)
stress tests.
B)
performance tests.
C)
recovery tests.
D)
security tests.
E)
stub tests.
78)
The organizational process of changing over from the current information system
to a new one best defines:
A)
reorganization.
B)
physical design.
C)
installation.
D)
replacement.
E)
system alteration.
79)
Which of the following determines how the system performs on the range of
possible environments in which it may be used?
A)
Performance testing
B)
Recovery testing
C)
Stress testing
D)
Range testing
E)
Security testing
80)
Changing over from the old information system to a new one by turning off the
old system as the new one is turned on best describes:
A)
phased installation.
B)
single location installation.
C)
parallel installation.
D)
direct installation.
E)
rotation installation.
81)
System documentation that is part of the program source code or is generated at
compile time best defines:
A)
system documentation.
B)
user documentation.
C)
internal documentation.
D)
external documentation.
E)
embedded documentation.
82)
Which of the following is a type of system documentation?
A)
Data-flow diagrams
B)
Quick reference guide
C)
Release description
D)
System administrator's guide
E)
Acceptance sign-off
83)
All of the following are types of user documentation EXCEPT:
A)
release description.
B)
reference guide.
C)
acceptance sign-off.
D)
entity-relationship diagrams.
E) user's guide.
84)
Written or other visual information about an application system, how it works,
and how to use it best defines:
A)
system documentation.
B)
user documentation.
C)
internal documentation.
D)
external documentation.
E)
application documentation.
85)
System documentation that includes the outcome of such structured diagramming
techniques as data-flow and entity-relationship diagrams best defines:
A)
embedded documentation.
B)
user documentation.
C)
internal documentation.
D)
external documentation.
E)
application documentation.
86)
Which of the following consists of an exhaustive list of the system's functions
and commands, usually in alphabetical order?
A)
Reference guide
B)
User's guide
C)
Release description
D)
System administrator's guide
E)
Programmer's guide
87)
This type of user documentation contains information about a new system
release, including a list of complete documentation for the new release,
features and enhancements, known problems and how they have been dealt with in
the new release, and information about installation.
A)
Reference guide
B)
User's manual
C)
Release description
D)
System administrator's guide
E)
Programmer's guide
88)
This type of user documentation is intended primarily for those who will
install and administer a new system and contains information about the network
on which the system will run, software interfaces for peripherals such as
printers, troubleshooting, and setting up user accounts.
A)
External documentation
B)
User's manual
C)
System documentation
D)
System administrator's guide
E)
Programmer's guide
89) This type of user documentation allows
users to test for proper system installation and then signify their acceptance
of the new system and its documentation with their signatures.
A)
Acceptance sign-off
B)
User contract
C)
Request for Proposal (RFP)
D)
System verification
E)
Statement of Work
90)
Most user documentation is now delivered:
A)
online, in hypertext format.
B)
through paper manuals.
C)
by calling technical support numbers.
D)
through help desks.
E)
by e-mail.
91)
Potential topics from which you must determine if training for system users
will be useful include:
A)
system management.
B)
system installation.
C)
use of the system.
D)
general computing concepts.
E)
all of the above.
92)
Which of the following are common methods for computer training?
A)
Tutorials
B)
Resident expert
C)
External sources
D)
Interactive training manuals
E)
All of the above
93)
A component of a software package or application in which training and
educational information is embedded best defines:
A)
resident expert.
B)
computer-aided instruction.
C)
electronic tutorial.
D)
electronic performance support system.
E)
electronic encyclopedia.
94)
Common methods for automating support include:
A)
online support forums.
B)
voice-response systems.
C)
on-demand fax.
D)
bulletin board systems.
E)
all of the above.
95)
Which of the following types of maintenance accounts for as much as 70 percent
of all maintenance activity?
A)
Preventive maintenance
B)
Corrective maintenance
C)
Adaptive maintenance
D)
Perfective maintenance
E)
Internal maintenance
96)
Changes made to a system to fix or enhance its functionality best defines:
A)
maintenance.
B)
support.
C)
repair.
D)
installation.
E)
coding.
97)
Changes made to a system to repair flaws in its design, coding, or
implementation describes:
A)
corrective maintenance.
B)
adaptive maintenance.
C)
preventive maintenance.
D)
perfective maintenance.
E)
programmatic maintenance.
98)
Changes made to a system to evolve its functionality to changing business needs
or technologies is referred to as:
A)
corrective maintenance.
B)
adaptive maintenance.
C)
preventive maintenance.
D)
perfective maintenance.
E)
environmental maintenance.
99)
Evolving the system to add new features or improve performance best describes:
A)
corrective maintenance.
B)
adaptive maintenance.
C)
preventive maintenance.
D)
perfective maintenance.
E)
evolutionary maintenance.
100)
Which of the following typically would be assigned the
highest priority?
A)
Preventive maintenance
B)
Perfective maintenance
C)
Corrective maintenance
D)
Adaptive maintenance
E)
Evolutionary maintenance
101)
Which of the following maintenance cost elements is
the most significant?
A)
Tools
B)
Software structure
C)
Personnel
D)
Customers
E)
Hardware
102)
Which of the following influences most of the costs
associated with maintaining a system?
A)
Maintenance personnel
B)
Documentation quality
C)
Number of latent defects
D)
Number of customers
E)
Tools
103)
The ease with which software can be understood,
corrected, adapted, and enhanced best describes:
A)
maintenance.
B)
maintainability.
C)
adaptability.
D)
comfort level.
E)
installation.
104)
A measurement of error occurrences that can be tracked
over time to indicate the quality of a system best defines:
A)
consistency ratio.
B)
mean time between failures.
C)
error tracking.
D)
regression analysis.
E)
software metrics.
105)
The person responsible for controlling the checking
out and checking in of baseline modules for a system that is being developed or
maintained is the:
A)
code agent.
B)
systems operator.
C)
system librarian.
D)
catalog agent.
E)
chief information officer.
106)
Software modules that have been tested, documented, and approved to be included
in the most recently created version of a system best describes:
A)
build routines.
B)
baseline modules.
C)
stub modules.
D)
configured modules.
E)
performance modules.
107)
The object-oriented development life cycle consists
of:
A)
analysis, design, and implementation phases.
B)
identification, planning, design, and implementation
phases.
C)
selection, analysis, design, and implementation
phases.
D)
identification, design, and implementation phases.
E)
design and implementation phases.
108)
Modeling deliverables from project activities using object-oriented modeling
include:
A)
structure charts and data flow diagrams.
B)
dialogue diagrams and object reference charts.
C)
decision tables and object status diagrams.
D)
data-flow and entity-relationship diagrams and repository descriptions.
E)
dialogue diagrams, Structured English representations,
and structure charts.
109)
Benefits of the object-oriented modeling approach include:
A)
the ability to tackle more challenging problem
domains.
B)
improved communication among users, analysts, designers, and programmers.
C)
reusability of analysis, design, and programming
results.
D)
increased consistency among the models developed
during object-oriented analysis, design, and programming.
E)
all of the above.
110)
In which object-oriented systems development life
cycle phase are the application-oriented analysis models adapted and refined to
suit the target implementation environment?
A)
Analysis
B)
Design
C)
Implementation
D)
Selection
E)
Planning
111)
In which object-oriented systems development life
cycle phase is the design implemented using a programming language and/or
database management system?
A)
Analysis
B)
Design
C)
Implementation
D)
Selection
E)
Planning
112)
Which of the following is a true statement?
A)
The UML notation is useful for graphically depicting object-oriented analysis
and design models.
B)
The UML notation allows you to specify the requirements of a system and capture
design decisions.
C)
The UML notation promotes communication among key persons involved in the
development effort.
D)
The UML notation allows the modeler to specify, visualize, and construct the
artifacts of software systems, as well as business models.
E)
All of the above are true statements.
113)
A notation that allows the modeler to specify, visualize, and construct the
artifacts of software systems, as well as business models, best defines:
A)
Unified Modeling Language.
B)
Structured English.
C)
pseudocode.
D)
logic modeling.
E)
structured design.
114)
Which of the following represent dynamic models of how
objects change their states in response to events?
A)
Use cases
B)
Class diagrams
C)
State diagrams
D)
Sequence diagrams
E)
Component diagrams
115)
Which of the following represent dynamic models of
interactions between objects?
A)
Use cases
B)
Class diagrams
C)
State diagrams
D)
Sequence diagrams
E)
Component diagrams
116)
Which of the following show the static structure of
data and the operations that act on the data?
A)
Use cases
B)
Class diagrams
C)
State diagrams
D)
Sequence diagrams
E)
Component diagrams
117)
Generally speaking, a use-case model is developed during the:
A)
analysis phase.
B)
logical design phase.
C)
implementation phase.
D)
selection phase.
E)
production phase.
118)
Referencing use-case modeling, an external entity that interacts with the
system best defines:
A)
player.
B)
actor.
C)
source.
D)
target.
E)
event.
119)
A complete sequence of related actions initiated by an
actor best describes:
A)
class.
B)
sequence diagram.
C)
use case.
D)
object.
E)
aggregation.
120)
On a use-case diagram, an actor can represent:
A)
a hardware device.
B)
another system.
C)
a human.
D)
an organization.
E)
all of the above.
121)
A diagram that depicts the use cases and actors for a system is called a:
A)
deployment diagram.
B)
component diagram.
C)
sequence diagram.
D)
state transition diagram.
E)
use-case diagram.
122)
On a use-case diagram, use cases are shown as:
A)
squares with their names written inside.
B)
rounded rectangles with their names written inside.
C)
stickmen symbols with their names written below the
symbol.
D)
ellipses with their names inside.
E)
circles with their names written inside.
123)
A type of use-case relationship that adds new behaviors or actions is a(n):
A)
generalized relationship.
B)
extends relationship.
C)
recursive relationship.
D)
abstract relationship.
E)
complex relationship.
124)
On a use-case diagram, the type of relationship that arises when one use case
references another use case is called a(n):
A)
extends relationship.
B)
working relationship.
C)
include relationship.
D)
definitive relationship.
E)
recursive relationship.
125)
An entity that has a well-defined role in the
application domain and has state, behavior, and identity defines:
A)
object.
B)
attribute.
C)
actor.
D)
class.
E)
component.
126)
An object:
A)
can be a tangible entity.
B)
can be a concept or event.
C)
can be an artifact of the design process.
D)
can be all of the above.
E)
is none of the above.
127)
Which of the following encompasses an object's
properties and the values those properties have?
A)
Behavior
B)
Class
C)
State
D)
Encapsulation
E)
Incorporation
128)
Which of the following represents how an object acts
and reacts?
A)
Behavior
B)
Class
C)
State
D)
Encapsulation
E)
Environment
129)
Which of the following is NOT a true statement?
A)
An object's behavior depends on its state and the operation being performed.
B)
An object's state is determined by its attribute values and links to other
objects.
C)
An operation is simply an action that one object performs upon another in order
to get a response.
D)
An object's state and behavior are packaged separately.
E)
An object has a state and exhibits behavior, through operations that can
examine or affect its state.
130)
A manner that represents how an object acts and reacts
best describes:
A)
event.
B)
property.
C)
attribute.
D)
state.
E)
behavior.
131)
A set of objects that share a common structure and a
common behavior best defines:
A)
entity.
B)
object class.
C)
object collection.
D)
multiplicity.
E)
encapsulation.
132)
In UML, an object class is represented by:
A)
a rectangle with three compartments separated by
horizontal lines.
B)
a circle in which the activity name is recorded.
C)
a double-lined ellipse in which the activity name is
recorded.
D)
a diamond in which the activity name is recorded.
E)
a set of brackets in which the event name is recorded.
133)
Showing the static structure of an object-oriented model: the object classes,
their internal structure, and the relationships in which they participate is
the purpose of a:
A)
class diagram.
B)
sequence diagram.
C)
use-case diagram.
D)
collaboration diagram.
E)
component diagram.
134)
A graph of instances that are compatible with a given class diagram is a(n):
A)
object diagram.
B)
sequence diagram.
C)
use-case diagram.
D)
collaboration diagram.
E)
component diagram.
135)
A function or a service that is provided by all the
instances of a class best defines:
A)
encapsulation.
B)
task set.
C)
operation.
D)
multiplicity.
E)
response.
136)
Which of the following provides an external interface
to a class?
A)
Constructor
B)
Operation
C)
View
D)
Association
E)
Source
137)
The technique of hiding the internal implementation
details of an object from its external view is called:
A)
disassociation.
B)
encryption.
C)
encapsulation.
D)
generalization.
E)
simplification.
138)
A relationship between object classes best defines:
A)
encapsulation.
B)
scope.
C)
association.
D)
composition.
E)
integration.
139)
The degree of an association relationship can be:
A)
unary.
B)
binary.
C)
ternary.
D)
higher (n-ary).
E)
all of the above.
140)
When indicating the multiplicity for a role, an infinite upper bound is denoted
by a:
A)
dash.
B)
diamond.
C)
hollow point arrow.
D)
solid triangle.
E)
star.
141)
Which of the following multiplicities indicates a
minimum of 0 and a maximum of 1?
A)
1..0.
B)
0..1.
C)
1 ∙ 0.
D)
1:M.
E)
1:1.
142)
The end of an association where it connects to a class
best describes:
A)
encapsulation.
B)
scope.
C)
association role.
D)
composition.
E)
integration.
143)
Which of the following indicates how many objects
participate in a given relationship?
A)
Association role
B)
Object count
C)
Multiplicity
D)
Association class
E)
Composition
144)
Abstracting the common features among multiple classes, as well as the
relationships they participate in, into a more general class is known as:
A)
aggregation.
B)
overlapping.
C)
multiplicity.
D)
generalization.
E)
rejuvenation.
145)
A class that has no direct instances, but whose
descendants may have direct instances best defines:
A)
concrete class.
B)
abstract class.
C)
super class.
D)
incomplete class.
E)
simple class.
146)
A class that can have direct instances best defines:
A)
abstract class.
B)
complete class.
C)
concrete class.
D)
superclass.
E)
complex class.
147)
The semantic constraint specifying that no instance
can be an instance of more than one subclass at the same time is:
A)
complete.
B)
disjoint.
C)
overlapping.
D)
incomplete.
E)
aggregation.
148)
A part-of relationship between a component object and
an aggregate object best defines:
A)
composition.
B)
aggregation.
C)
multiplicity.
D)
consolidation.
E)
relational.
149)
Changes in the attributes of an object or in the links an object has with other
objects best defines:
A)
event.
B)
operations.
C)
state transition.
D)
method.
E)
process.
150)
Something that takes place at a certain point in time
best defines:
A)
event.
B)
operations.
C)
state transition.
D)
method.
E)
object.
151)
Which of the following depicts the various state
transitions or changes an object can experience during its lifetime, along with
the events that cause those transitions?
A)
Entity relationship diagram
B)
Collaboration diagram
C)
Sequence diagram
D)
State diagram
E)
Component diagram
152)
Types of interaction diagrams include:
A)
state diagrams and sequence diagrams.
B)
sequence diagrams and collaboration diagrams.
C)
data-flow diagrams and entity-relationship diagrams.
D)
component diagrams and deployment diagrams.
E)
use-case diagrams and component diagrams.
153)
Which of the following depicts the interactions among
objects during a certain period of time?
A)
Class diagrams
B)
Data-flow diagrams
C)
Sequence diagrams
D)
Collaboration diagrams
E)
Use-case diagrams
154)
Which of the following shows the time period during
which an object performs an operation, either directly or through a call to
some subordinate operation?
A)
Asynchronous message
B)
Activation
C)
Critical path
D)
Simple message
E)
Component diagram
155)
A type of message in which the caller has to wait for the receiving object to
finish executing the called operation before it can resume execution itself is a(n):
A)
synchronous message.
B)
simple message.
C)
asynchronous message.
D)
half-duplex message.
E)
packet.
156)
Which of the following shows the software components
or modules and their dependencies?
A)
Component diagram
B)
State diagram
C)
Deployment diagram
D)
Use-case diagram
E)
Object diagram
157) Which of the following is the systems development era that
spawned the structured analysis and structured design approaches to systems
development?
A)
Developer-as-artist
B)
Developer-as-integrator
C)
Facilitator-as-developer
D)
User-as-developer
E)
Developer-as-engineer
158) Which of the following is the systems development era marked
by a lack of documentation and development tools and by a high degree of
dependence on the developer for the continued ongoing operation of the system
he/she had created?
A) Developer-as-artist
B)
Developer-as-integrator
C)
Facilitator-as-developer
D)
User-as-developer
E)
Developer-as-engineer
159) Which of the following is a true statement?
A) The
developer-as-artist systems development era was marked by a lack of documentation
and development tools and by a high degree of dependence on the developer for
the continued ongoing operation of the system he or she had created.
B)
During the developer-as-engineer systems development era, principles from
engineering were applied to development.
C) The
Agile Methodologies era favors close cooperation between developers and
clients.
D) All
of the above are correct.
E)
None of the above is correct.
160) Which of the following set the current major phase in
systems development?
A) The
object-oriented approach and the Internet economy
B) The
process-oriented approach
C) The
planning-based approach
D) The
software engineering approach
E) The
prototyping approach
161) The key principles of the Agile Methodologies include:
A) a focus on adaptive rather than predictive methodologies.
B) a focus on people rather than roles.
C) a self-adaptive process.
D) all
of the above.
E) none of the above.
162)
Principles identified in the Agile Manifesto include:
A) having as its highest priority customer satisfaction through
the early and continuous delivery of valuable software.
B) welcoming changing requirements, even late in development.
C) the frequent delivery of working software, from a couple of
weeks to a couple of months, with a preference to the shorter timescale.
D) all
of the above.
E) none of the above.
163)
According to the Agile Software Development Manifesto, the seventeen anarchists
came to value:
A) individuals and interactions over processes and tools.
B) working software over comprehensive documentation.
C) customer collaboration over contract negotiation.
D) responding to change over following a plan.
E) all
of the above.
164)
The Agile Software Development anarchists value:
A) contract negotiation over customer collaboration.
B) processes and tools over individuals and interactions.
C) following a plan over responding to change.
D) working software over comprehensive documentation.
E) joint application development over rapid application design.
165) Which of the following would the Agile Software Development
anarchists place more value on?
A)
Individuals and interactions
B)
Contract negotiations
C)
Following a plan
D)
Comprehensive documentation
E)
Team member roles
166)
An Agile process is recommended when your project involves:
A) unpredictable or dynamic requirements.
B) responsible and motivated developers.
C) customers who understand the process and will get involved.
D) all
of the above.
E) none of the above.
167)
An Agile Methodology is recommended for each of the following EXCEPT:
A) unpredictable or dynamic requirements.
B) responsible and motivated developers.
C) customers who understand and will get involved.
D) a large development team, exceeding 100 or more people.
E) small development projects.
168)
Traditional methods for software development are preferred for each of the
following EXCEPT:
A) when the project is operating under a fixed-price or
fixed-scope contract.
B) unpredictable or dynamic requirements.
C) a large development team, exceeding 100 or more people.
D)
projects dealing with safety-critical systems.
E) the system being developed will operate in a stable
environment.
169) When dealing with a lack of predictability, Agile
Methodologies employ:
A)
use-case modeling.
B) structured analysis.
C) iterative development.
D) structured programming.
E) logic modeling.
170) Which of the following focuses on the frequent production of
working versions of a system that have a subset of the total number of required
features?
A)
Use-case modeling
B)
Structured analysis
C)
Iterative development
D)
Structured programming
E)
Limited production
171) Which of the following is a critical factor for
distinguishing agile and traditional approaches to systems development?
A)
Size
B)
Criticality
C)
Dynamism
D)
Personnel
E) All
of the above
172) Which of the following describes Agile Methodologies?
A)
Methods evolved to handle highly critical products.
B)
Methods evolved to handle large products and teams.
C)
Needs a critical mass of scarce experts during project definition but can work
with fewer later in the project, unless the environment is highly dynamic
D)
Thrives in a culture where people feel comfortable and empowered by having
their roles defined by clear practices and procedures
E)
Simple design and continuous refactoring are excellent for highly dynamic
environments but are a source of potentially expensive rework for highly stable
environments.
173) Each of the following describes engineering-based methods
EXCEPT:
A) methods evolved to handle highly critical products.
B) methods evolved to handle large products and teams.
C) needs a critical mass of scarce experts during project
definition but can work with fewer later in the project, unless the environment
is highly dynamic.
D) thrives in a culture where people feel comfortable and
empowered by having their roles defined by clear practices and procedures.
E) simple design and continuous refactoring are excellent for
highly dynamic environments but are a source of potentially expensive rework
for highly stable environments.
174) Which of the following are descriptive of engineering-based
methods?
A)
Thrives in a culture where people feel comfortable and empowered by many
degrees of freedom
B)
Potential difficulties with simple design and lack of documentation
C)
Simple design and continuous refactoring are excellent for highly dynamic
environments but are a source of potentially expensive rework for highly stable
environments .
D) Needs
a critical mass of scarce experts during project definition but can work with
fewer later in the project, unless the environment is highly dynamic
E)
Well-matched to small products and teams
175) Each of the following are descriptive of Agile Methodologies
EXCEPT:
A) detailed plans and Big Design Up Front are excellent for
highly stable environments but are a source of expensive rework for highly
dynamic environments.
B) thrives in a culture where people feel comfortable and
empowered by having many degrees of freedom.
C) well-matched to small products and teams.
D) simple design and continuous refactoring are excellent for
highly dynamic environments but are a source of potentially expensive rework
for highly stable environments.
E) requires a continuous presence of a critical mass of scarce
experts.
176)
Which of the following is distinguished by its short development cycles, its
incremental planning approach, its focus on automated tests written by
programmers and customers to monitor the process of development, and its
reliance on an evolutionary approach to development that lasts throughout the
lifetime of the system?
A) JAD
B) OCP
C) DRM
D) eXtreme Programming
E)
Nominal group technique
177) eXtreme Programming:
A) relies on predictive planning.
B) thrives on order.
C) is best used in the development of critical systems.
D) has
as a key emphasis the use of two-person teams.
E) focuses on fixed contract systems.
178) eXtreme Programming:
A) is distinguished by its short development cycles.
B) focuses on automated tests written by programmers and
customers to monitor the process of development.
C) uses two-person programming teams.
D) has a customer on-site during the development process.
E) does all of the above.
179) Which of the following is a true statement about eXtreme Programming?
A)
After a programmer has written the code, it is immediately given to a tester
for testing.
B)
Code is tested at the end of the coding phase.
C)
Pair programming requires one person to type in the code and another person to
watch as the code is entered.
D) The
overall philosophy behind eXtreme Programming is that
code will be integrated into the system it is being developed for and tested
within a few hours after it has been written.
E) All
of the above are true statements.
180) Which of the following is NOT an eXtreme
Programming advantage?
A)
More communication among developers
B)
Higher levels of productivity
C)
Very useful for large development teams
D)
Reinforcement of the other practices in eXtreme
Programming
E)
Higher-quality code
181) Which of the following is an eXtreme
Programming advantage?
A)
More communication among developers
B)
Higher levels of productivity
C)
Higher-quality code
D)
Reinforcement of the other practices in eXtreme
Programming
E) All
of the above
182) During eXtreme Programming:
A) system requirements are produced during the systems analysis
phase.
B) system specifications are created during the design phase.
C) coding and testing are done at the beginning of the
implementation phase.
D) system requirements, system specifications, and coding and
testing activities are combined into a single analysis-design-code-test
process.
E) none of the above is correct.
183) During eXtreme Programming, the
techniques used for requirements determination are captured in the:
A)
Iteration Planning Game.
B) venting session.
C) walkthrough session.
D)
Product Determination Game.
E)
Planning Game.
184) Which of the following is a stylized approach to development
used during eXtreme Programming that seeks to
maximize fruitful interaction between those who need a new system and those who
build it?
A)
Iteration Planning Game
B)
Venting session
C)
Walkthrough session
D)
Product Determination Game
E)
Planning Game
185)
Planning Game players include:
A) business and development.
B) facilitators, business, and development.
C) scribes, sponsors, and business.
D) development and scribes.
E) sponsors and development.
186)
In the Planning Game, which of the following refers to the customer who knows
the processes to be supported by the system being developed?
A)
Facilitator
B)
Business
C)
Development
D)
Sponsor
E)
Scribe
187)
In the Planning Game, which of the following refers to the individuals who are
actually designing and constructing the system?
A)
Facilitator
B)
Business
C)
Development
D)
Constructor
E)
Scribe
188)
In the Planning Game, which of the following are cards that contain a
description of a procedure or feature to be included in the system?
A)
Specification Cards
B)
Requirements Cards
C)
Design Cards
D)
Story Cards
E)
Reference Cards
189)
Exploration, commitment, and steering are phases associated with:
A)
RAD.
B)
JAD.
C)
Structured Analysis.
D)
RUP.
E)
Planning Game.
190) The three phases associated with the Planning game include:
A) exploration, commitment, and steering.
B) exploration, initiation, and design.
C) initiation, analysis, and design.
D) analysis, design, and implementation.
E) exploration, design, and implementation.
191)
During Agile Usage-Centered Design, which of the following allows individuals
to get their complaints out in the open?
A)
Current system review session
B)
Venting session
C) The
use of 3 x 5 cards
D) JAD
session
E)
Refactoring session
192)
During the Planning Game's exploration phase:
A) business sorts Story Cards based on feature requirements.
B) business creates a Story Card for something it wants the new
system to do.
C) development sorts the Story Cards based on risk.
D) programmers convert Story Cards into Task Cards.
E) programmers accept responsibility for tasks and balance
their workloads.
193)
During Agile Usage-Centered Design, when a "clump" of similar cards
is worked with; this is called:
A) task model.
B) role model.
C) interaction context.
D) requirements model.
E) design model.
194)
During the Planning Game's commitment phase:
A) business sorts the Story Cards based on feature
requirements.
B) business creates a Story Card for something it wants the new
system to do.
C) development sorts the Story Cards based on risk.
D) programmers convert Story Cards into Task Cards.
E) programmers accept responsibility for tasks and balance
their workloads.
195)
During the Planning Game's steering phase:
A) business sorts the Story Cards based on feature
requirements.
B) business creates a Story Card for something it wants the new
system to do.
C) developments sorts the Story Cards based on risk.
D) business sees how the development process is progressing and
works with Development to adjust the plan accordingly.
E) programmers accept responsibility for tasks and balance
their workloads.
196)
The Iteration Planning Game is played by:
A) business and development.
B) facilitators.
C) scribes.
D) sponsors.
E) programmers.
197)
During the Iteration Planning Game, programmers prepare:
A)
Task Cards.
B)
Story Cards.
C)
Pseudocode Cards.
D)
Structured English.
E)
Structure Charts.
198)
The Iteration Planning Game consists of:
A) exploration, commitment, and steering.
B) exploration, initiation, and design.
C) initiation, analysis, and design.
D) analysis, design, and implementation.
E) exploration, design, and implementation.
199)
During the Iteration Planning Game's exploration phase:
A) business sorts the Story Cards based on feature
requirements.
B) business creates a Story Card for something it wants the new
system to do.
C) programmers convert Story Cards into Task Cards.
D) business sees how the development process is progressing and
works with Development to adjust the plan accordingly.
E) programmers accept responsibility for tasks and balance
their workloads.
200)
During the Iteration Planning Game's commitment phase:
A) business sorts the Story Cards based on feature requirements.
B) business creates a Story Card for something it wants the new
system to do.
C) programmers convert Story Cards into Task Cards.
D) business sees how the development process is progressing and
works with Development to adjust the plan accordingly.
E) programmers accept responsibility for tasks and balance
their workloads.
201)
During the Iteration Planning Game's steering phase:
A) programmers write the code for a feature, test it, and if it
works, they integrate the feature into the product being developed.
B) business creates a Story Card for something it wants the new
system to do.
C) programmers convert Story Cards into Task Cards.
D) business sees how the development process is progressing and
works with Development to adjust the plan accordingly.
E) programmers accept responsibility for tasks and balance
their workloads.
202) Which of the following are reasons to use a traditional
method for a project as opposed to an Agile Methodology?
A)
High risk project
B)
Highly complex project
C) A
development team consisting of hundreds of people
D) A
large proportion of the project is contracted out to others to develop.
E) All
of the above
203)
Creating uncomplicated software and software components that work to solve the
current problem rather than creating complicated software designed for a future
that may not come best defines:
A) simple design.
B) refactoring.
C) activation.
D) normalization.
E) logic modeling.
204)
Making a program simpler after adding a new feature best defines:
A) simple design.
B) refactoring.
C) activation.
D) normalization.
E) logic modeling.
205)
Which of the following are simple design constraints of eXtreme
Programming?
A) The
system must communicate everything you want it to communicate.
B) The
system must contain no duplicate code.
C) The
system should have the fewest possible classes.
D) The
system should have the fewest possible methods.
E) All
of the above are correct.