IS341 – Business
Systems Analysis
Sample Test 1
Chapters 1, 2, 3,
4,
1)
The organizational role most responsible for the analysis and design of
information systems best describes a:
A)
business manager.
B)
systems analyst.
C)
chief information officer.
D)
database analyst.
E)
network administrator.
2)
The information system includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A)
hardware and software.
B)
training materials.
C)
people who use the software.
D)
capital investment.
E)
people who create the software
3)
The process of developing and maintaining an information system best describes:
A)
joint application design.
B)
prototyping.
C)
information systems analysis and design.
D)
information technology infrastructure development.
E)
systems implementation.
4)
Software designed to support the payroll function would best be classified as:
A)
application software.
B)
system software.
C)
design software.
D)
analysis software.
E)
a decision support system.
5)
An information system includes each of the following EXCEPT:
A)
application software.
B)
culture.
C)
documentation and training materials.
D)
specific job roles associated with the overall system.
E)
controls.
6)
Your primary responsibility as a systems analyst concerns:
A)
people.
B)
hardware.
C)
application software development.
D)
controls.
E)
documentation and training materials.
7)
A sequence of step-by-step approaches that help develop the information system
best describes:
A)
techniques.
B)
tools.
C)
methodologies.
D)
data flows.
E)
flow charts.
8)
The particular processes that an analyst will follow to help ensure that his
work is complete, well done, and understood by project team members best
defines:
A)
techniques.
B)
tools.
C)
methodologies.
D)
data flows.
E)
flow charts.
9)
A group of interrelated procedures used for a business function, with an
identifiable boundary, working together for some purpose, best defines:
A)
environment.
B)
system component.
C)
constraint.
D)
interface.
E)
system.
10)
Computer programs that make it easy to use specific techniques are best defined
as:
A)
techniques.
B)
tools.
C)
methodologies.
D)
data flows.
E)
flow charts.
11)
Which of the following is NOT a system characteristic?
A)
Scope
B)
Output
C)
Input
D)
Interface
E)
Boundary
12)
Dependence of one part of the system on one or more other system parts best
describes:
A)
boundary.
B)
interrelated components.
C)
cohesion.
D)
dependency.
E)
component.
13)
The line that marks the inside and outside of the system that sets off the
system from its environment, best defines:
A)
delineation mark.
B)
boundary.
C)
scope.
D)
interface.
E)
analysis area.
14)
An irreducible part, or an aggregation of parts within a system, is called
a(n):
A)
component.
B)
input.
C)
interface.
D)
constraint.
E)
output.
15)
An aggregation of parts is also called a(n):
A)
interface.
B)
subsystem.
C)
collection.
D)
accumulation.
E)
constraint.
16)
The overall goal or function of a system best defines:
A)
purpose.
B)
goal.
C)
objective.
D)
scope.
E)
mission.
17)
The environment of a state university would NOT include:
A)
prospective students.
B)
the legislature.
C)
the president's office.
D)
the news media.
E)
a foundation.
18)
The point of contact where a system meets its environment or where subsystems
meet each other best describes:
A)
boundary points.
B)
interfaces.
C)
contact points.
D)
merge points.
E)
forks.
19)
The process of breaking the description of a system down into its smaller
components best defines:
A)
coupling.
B)
cohesion.
C)
decomposition.
D)
modularity.
E)
scaling.
20)
Which of the following is NOT a function of decomposition?
A)
Permit different parts of the system to be built at the same time by the same
person
B)
Allow attention to be concentrated on the part of the system pertinent to a
particular audience, without confusing people with details irrelevant to their
interests
C)
Facilitate the focusing of attention on one area (subsystem) at a time without
interference from other parts
D)
Break a system into smaller, more manageable and understandable subsystems
E)
Build different parts of the system at independent times and have the help of
different analysts
21)
Which of the following is a direct result of decomposition?
A)
Coupling
B)
Open systems
C)
Cohesion
D)
Modularity
E)
Interfaces
22)
The extent to which subsystems depend on each other refers to:
A)
modularity.
B)
coupling.
C)
decomposition.
D)
dependence.
E)
cohesion.
23)
The extent to which a system or subsystem performs a single function defines:
A)
modularity.
B)
coupling.
C)
decomposition.
D)
dependence.
E)
cohesion.
24)
Today, systems development focuses on:
A)
modularity.
B)
coupling.
C)
decomposition.
D)
systems integration.
E)
systems implementation.
25)
Which of the following allows hardware and software from different vendors to
work together in an application?
A)
Systems coupling
B)
Systems integration
C)
Systems decomposition
D)
Participatory design
E)
Joint application design
26)
Analytical skills:
A)
help you work with end users, as well as other analysts and programmers.
B)
help you understand the potential and the limitations of information
technology.
C)
help you manage projects, resources, risk, and change.
D)
enable you to understand the organization and its functions, to identify
opportunities and problems, and to solve problems.
E)
promote an understanding of the different types of information systems.
27)
Technical skills:
A)
help you work with end users, as well as other analysts and programmers.
B)
help you understand the potential and the limitations of information
technology.
C)
help you manage projects, resources, risk, and change.
D)
enable you to understand the organization and its functions, to identify
opportunities and problems, and to analyze and solve problems.
E)
promote an understanding of the different types of information systems.
28)
Management skills:
A)
help you work with end users, as well as other analysts and programmers.
B)
help you understand the potential and the limitations of information
technology.
C)
help you manage projects, resources, risk, and change.
D)
enable you to understand the organization and its functions, to identify
opportunities and problems, and to analyze and solve problems.
E)
promote an understanding of the different types of information systems.
29)
Interpersonal skills:
A)
help you work with end users, as well as other analysts and programmers.
B)
help you understand the potential and the limitations of information
technology.
C)
help you manage projects, resources, risk, and change.
D)
enable you to understand the organization and its functions, to identify
opportunities and problems, and to analyze and solve problems.
E)
promote an understanding of the different types of information systems.
30)
The need for a new or enhanced system is identified during:
A)
systems planning and selection.
B)
systems coding.
C)
systems analysis.
D)
systems design.
E)
systems implementation and operation.
31)
In which SDLC phase will the analyst study the organization's current
procedures and the information systems used to perform tasks?
A)
Systems planning and selection
B)
Systems observation
C)
Systems analysis
D)
Systems design
E)
Systems implementation and operation
32)
In which phase will the systems analyst convert the description of the
recommended alternative solution into logical and then physical system
specifications?
A)
Systems planning and selection
B)
Systems conversion
C)
Systems analysis
D)
Systems design
E)
Systems implementation and operation
33)
A description of the alternative solution recommended by the analysis team is
provided during the:
A)
systems planning and selection phase.
B)
systems design phase.
C)
systems analysis phase.
D)
systems implementation and operation phase.
E)
systems alternative selection phase.
34)
In which SDLC phase is the information system coded, tested, and installed in
the organization?
A)
Systems planning and selection
B)
Systems replacement
C)
Systems analysis
D)
Systems design
E)
Systems implementation and operation
35)
Priorities for systems and projects are deliverables for the:
A)
systems planning and selection phase.
B)
systems analysis phase.
C)
systems design phase.
D)
systems priority phase.
E)
systems implementation and operation phase.
36)
Which of the following is NOT an approach to systems development?
A)
Prototyping
B)
Reengineering analysis
C)
Joint application design
D)
Agile Methodologies
E)
Rapid application development
37)
Building a scaled-down version of the desired system best describes:
A)
prototyping.
B)
Agile Methodologies.
C)
joint application design.
D)
reengineering analysis.
E)
rapid application development.
38)
A systems development methodology created to radically decrease the time needed
to design and implement information systems best describes:
A)
Participatory Design (PD).
B)
rapid application development.
C)
joint application design.
D)
CASE.
E)
Agile Methodologies.
39)
A systems development approach that originated in northern Europe, in which
users and the improvement of their work lives are the central focus, best
defines:
A)
Participatory Design (PD).
B)
rapid application development.
C)
joint application design.
D)
CASE.
E)
Agile Methodologies.
40)
A centralized database that contains all diagrams, forms and report
definitions, data structure, data definitions, process flows and logic, and
definitions of other organizational and system components best describes:
A)
information safe.
B)
code generator.
C)
repository.
D)
data generator.
E)
project database.
41)
Current approaches to systems development that focus on adaptive methodologies,
people instead of roles, and an overall self-adaptive development process best
defines:
A)
Participatory Design.
B)
rapid application development.
C)
joint application design.
D)
CASE.
E)
Agile Methodologies.
42)
The three key principles shared by the Agile Methodologies include:
A)
a focus on predictive methodologies.
B)
a focus on roles.
C)
a focus on self-adaptive processes.
D)
all of the above.
E)
none of the above.
43)
The practice of turning over responsibility of some or all of an organization's
information systems applications and operations to an outside firm is referred
to as:
A)
realignment.
B)
downsizing.
C)
outsourcing.
D)
time sharing.
E)
system reassignment and deployment.
44)
When developing information systems, an organization could use:
A) an
information technology services firm.
B)
open-source software.
C)
cloud computing.
D)
in-house development.
E) all
of the above.
45)
Packaged software producers create software such as:
A)
R/3.
B)
Excel.
C)
Linux.
D)
Firefox.
E)
OpenOffice
46) A
system that integrates individual traditional business functions into a series
of modules so that a single transaction occurs seamlessly within a single
information system rather than several separate systems best describes:
A)
enterprise resource planning (ERP).
B)
application service.
C)
storage area network.
D)
packaged software.
E)
system integration software.
47)
All of the following are benefits of enterprise solutions, EXCEPT:
A) a
single repository of data for all business processes.
B)
module flexibility.
C)
immediate integration of new modules.
D)
shifting toward enterprise solutions means changing business processes.
E)
shifting from separate systems to a seamless, integrated system.
48)
The provision of computing resources over the Internet so that customers do not
need to invest in infrastructure is called:
A)
cloud computing.
B)
raindrop computing.
C)
leased computing.
D)
centralized computing.
E)
none of the above.
49)
All of the following are reasons to go with cloud computing EXCEPT:
A)
freeing internal IT staff.
B)
gaining access to applications faster.
C)
reduced development time.
D)
achieving lower cost access to corporate-quality applications.
E) A
and B.
50)
The primary concern about cloud computing is:
A)
cost.
B)
reliability.
C)
compliance with standards.
D)
dependability.
E)
sustainability.
51)
Open-source software is developed by:
A)
in-house developers.
B)
employees of a particular company.
C)
communities of interested people.
D)
consultants.
E)
application service providers.
52) An
organization should acquire software from in-house developers when:
A) the
supported task is generic.
B)
complete systems that cross functional boundaries are needed.
C) the
task requires custom support and the system cannot be built internally.
D) the
resources and staff are available and the system must be built from scratch.
E)
None of the above is correct.
53)
Which of the following describes the internal staffing requirements when
software components are acquired from packaged software producers?
A)
Some internal staff are necessary, but mostly consultants are needed.
B)
Some information systems (IS) and user staff to define requirements and
evaluate packages are needed.
C)
Internal staff may be needed, depending on the application.
D)
Internal staff are necessary, though staff size may vary.
E)
None of the above is correct.
54)
Which of the following describes the internal staffing requirements when
software components are acquired from enterprise-wide solutions providers?
A)
Some internal staff are necessary, but mostly consultants are needed.
B)
Some IS and user staff to define requirements and evaluate packages are needed.
C)
Internal staff may be needed, depending on the application.
D)
Internal staff are necessary, though staff size may vary.
E)
None of the above is correct.
55)
Which of the following are common criteria to consider when selecting
off-the-shelf software?
A)
Flexibility
B)
Vendor viability
C)
Functionality
D)
Cost
E) All
of the above
56)
Two criteria that are always among the most important when choosing software
are:
A)
ease of installation & flexibility.
B)
response time & vendor support.
C)
vendor support & vendor viability.
D)
cost & functionality.
E)
functionality & documentation.
57) In
terms of criteria to consider when choosing off-the-shelf software, ease of
customization is also referred to as:
A)
response time.
B)
documentation.
C)
functionality.
D)
flexibility.
E)
None of the above is correct.
58) In
terms of criteria to consider when choosing off-the-shelf software,
documentation refers to all of the following EXCEPT:
A)
user's manuals.
B)
technical documentation.
C) the
cost for multiple copies.
D) the
baseline project plan.
E) how
understandable the documentation is.
59)
Which of the following are ways of validating purchased software information?
A)
Reviewing software documentation and technical marketing literature
B)
Sending prospective vendors a questionnaire asking specific questions about
their packages
C)
Using the software yourself and running it through a series of tests based on
the criteria for selecting software
D)
Obtaining feedback from other users of the software
E) All
of the above
60)
The document sent to vendors asking them to propose hardware and software that
will meet the requirements of your new system is called a:
A)
requirements statement.
B)
request for proposal (RFP).
C)
Baseline Project Plan.
D)
business case.
E)
systems service request.
61)
The use of previously written software resources is also referred to as:
A)
reuse.
B)
reengineering.
C)
reprocessing.
D)
re-analysis.
E)
restructuring.
62)
Reuse typically refers to using previously written:
A)
objects.
B)
components.
C)
documentation.
D)
business cases.
E)
Both A and B are correct.
63)
Reusing software can:
A)
increase the cost of software development.
B)
decrease development time.
C)
increase development time.
D)
increase schedule overruns.
E)
decrease programmer productivity.
64)
Which of the following is NOT a result of reuse?
A)
Higher-quality software
B)
Lower defect rates
C)
Decreased maintenance costs
D)
Higher defect rates
E)
Increased coding productivity
65)
Technical issues related to reuse include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) the
over-reliance on class libraries.
B)
lack of a methodology for creating reusable components.
C)
lack of a methodology for clearly defining reusable components.
D) the
small number of reusable resources available.
E) the
small number of reliable resources available.
66)
The four approaches to reuse include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) ad
hoc.
B)
facilitated.
C)
managed.
D)
designed.
E) ex
ante.
67)
The typical reuse level of facilitated reuse:
A)
varies.
B) is
low.
C) is
high.
D) is
very high.
E) is
moderate.
68)
The typical reuse level of designed reuse:
A)
varies.
B) is
low.
C) is
moderate.
D) is
high.
E) is
none to low.
69)
The relative cost of ad hoc reuse is:
A)
low.
B)
none.
C)
moderate.
D)
high.
E)
extremely high.
70)
When an organization invests in carefully designing assets for reuse, choosing
assets for domain or product line, they are said to be engaged in:
A) ad
hoc reuse.
B)
facilitated reuse.
C)
designed reuse.
D)
managed reuse.
E) ex
ante reuse.
71)
When an organization encourages and supports use with limited resources,
infrastructure, and policies to make reuse easier, they are said to be engaged
in:
A) ad
hoc reuse.
B)
managed reuse.
C) ex
ante reuse.
D)
facilitated reuse.
E)
designed reuse.
72)
With managed reuse, the development, sharing, and adoption of reusable assets
is:
A)
encouraged.
B)
mandated.
C)
discouraged.
D)
minimal.
E) All
of the above are correct.
73)
A planned undertaking of related activities to reach an objective that has a
beginning and an end best defines:
A)
task development.
B)
activity plan.
C)
project.
D)
task schedule.
E)
project mission.
74)
An individual with a diverse set of skills-management, leadership, technical,
conflict management, and customer relationship-who is responsible for
initiating, planning, executing, and closing down a project best defines:
A)
chief information officer.
B)
consultant.
C)
project scheduler.
D)
project manager.
E)
end user.
75)
Arguably, the most instrumental person to the successful completion of any
project is the:
A)
chief information officer.
B)
project manager.
C)
end user.
D)
staff consultant.
E)
department manager.
76)
Influencing the activities of others toward the attainment of a common goal
through the use of intelligence, personality, and abilities refers to which of
the following project manager activities?
A)
Conflict management
B)
Management
C)
Leadership
D)
Team management
E)
Customer relations
77)
Managing conflict within a project team to assure that conflict is not too high
or too low best defines which of the following project manager activities?
A)
Conflict management
B)
Leadership
C)
Team management
D)
Problem solving
E)
Risk management
78)
Identifying, assessing, and managing the risks and day-to-day changes that
occur during a project best defines which of the following project manager
activities?
A)
Conflict management
B)
Risk and change management
C)
Team management
D)
Customer relations
E)
Technical problem solving
79)
Skills that include interpreting system requests and specifications, site
preparation and user training, and contact point for customers best represent:
A)
leadership.
B)
management.
C)
customer relations.
D)
conflict management.
E)
team management.
80)
Skills that include defining and sequencing activities, communicating
expectations, assigning resources to activities, and monitoring outcomes best
represent:
A)
customer relations.
B)
leadership.
C)
team management.
D)
management.
E)
technical problem solving.
81)
Which of the following is NOT a project management phase?
A)
Closing down the project
B)
Planning the project
C)
Executing the project
D)
Initiating a project
E)
Implementing the project
82)
A controlled process of initiating, planning, executing, and closing down a
project best defines:
A)
systems development.
B)
project management.
C)
project development.
D)
systems management.
E)
systems development technique.
83)
The phase of the project management process in which activities are performed
to assess the size, scope, and complexity of the project and to establish
procedures to support later project activities best defines:
A)
project initiation.
B)
scope development.
C)
project planning.
D)
project assessment.
E)
project design.
84)
Which of the following project management activities is associated with project
initiation?
A)
Estimating resources and creating a detailed resource plan
B)
Describing project scope, alternatives, and feasibility
C)
Establishing a relationship with the customer
D)
Identifying and assessing risks
E)
Closing down the project
85)
Defining the necessary activities required to organize the initiation team
while they are working to define the scope of the project is the focus of which
of the following activities?
A)
Establishing the project initiation team
B)
Establishing management procedures
C)
Establishing the project management environment and project workbook
D)
Dividing the project into manageable tasks
E)
Establishing the project initiation plan
86)
An online or hard-copy repository for all project correspondence, inputs,
outputs, deliverables, procedures, and standards that is used for performing
project audits, orientation of new team members, communicating with management
and customers, identifying future projects, and performing post project reviews
is called:
A)
a project workbook.
B)
a schedule book.
C)
a project planner.
D)
project management software.
E)
an electronic calendar.
87)
Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding project planning?
A)
Project planning often requires that you make numerous assumptions about
resource availability and potential problems.
B)
Project planning is the second phase of the project management process.
C)
Project planning focuses on defining clear, discrete activities and the work
needed to complete each activity within a single project.
D)
The repetitive nature of the project management process requires that plans be
constantly monitored throughout the project and periodically updated.
E)
Monitoring project progress against the baseline project plan is the first
project planning activity.
88)
Developing an understanding of the content and complexity of the project is the
purpose of:
A)
developing a project charter activity of the project planning phase.
B)
setting a Baseline Project Plan activity of the project planning phase.
C)
determining project standards and procedures activity of the project planning
phase.
D)
describing the project scope, alternatives, and feasibility activity of the
project planning phase.
E)
closing down the project activity of the project planning phase.
89)
Which of the following is NOT a project planning activity?
A)
Setting a Baseline Project Plan
B)
Identifying and assessing risk
C)
Determining project standards and procedures
D)
Establishing management procedures
E)
Developing a project charter
90)
The process of dividing the project into manageable tasks and logically
ordering them to ensure a smooth evolution between tasks defines:
A)
task division.
B)
work breakdown structure.
C)
work structuring.
D)
project division.
E)
critical path scheduling.
91)
Which of the following is NOT a task characteristic?
A)
A task should have well-accepted predecessor and successor steps.
B)
A task should have a single and identifiable deliverable.
C)
A task should have a known method or technique.
D)
A task should be completed by only one person.
E)
A task is measurable so that percent completed can be determined.
92)
Which of the following is a true statement regarding project time estimates?
A)
Project time estimates for task completion and overall system quality are
significantly influenced by the assignment of people to tasks.
B)
Resource estimates should not be revised based upon the skills of the actual
person assigned to a particular activity.
C)
Staff learning can be enhanced by assigning individuals to tasks which are
"over their heads."
D)
Project time estimates are always on target.
E)
Hardware and software are the most important, and expensive, part of project
resource planning.
93)
During which of the following project planning activities do you use the
information regarding tasks and resource availability to assign time estimates
to each activity in the work breakdown structure?
A)
Dividing the project into manageable tasks
B)
Describing project scope, alternatives, and feasibility
C)
Setting a baseline project plan
D)
Developing a preliminary schedule
E)
Developing a project scope statement
94)
Indicating when and how written and oral reports will be provided by the team,
how team members will coordinate work, what messages will be sent to announce
the project to interested parties, and what kinds of information will be shared
with vendors and external contractors involved with the project describes:
A)
determining project standards and procedures.
B)
developing a project scope statement.
C)
developing a communication plan.
D)
setting a baseline project plan.
E)
establishing the project initiation team.
95)
Risks can arise from:
A)
the use of new technology.
B)
resistance to change.
C)
availability of critical resources.
D)
member inexperience with technology or the business area.
E)
all of the above.
96)
The third phase of the project management process in which the plans created in
the prior phases are put into action is:
A)
project planning.
B)
project development.
C)
project initiation.
D)
project execution.
E)
project close down.
97)
Which of the following occurs during project execution?
A)
Monitoring project progress against the Baseline Project Plan
B)
Conducting post project reviews
C)
Establishing the project initiation plan
D)
Establishing the project workbook
E)
Establishing the communication plan
98)
Changes to the Baseline Project Plan might be motivated by:
A)
a slipped completion date of an activity.
B)
a bungled activity that must be redone.
C)
the identification of a new activity that becomes evident later in the project.
D)
an unforeseen change in personnel due to sickness, resignation, or termination.
E)
all of the above.
99)
The responsibility for keeping all team members informed of the project status
best describes:
A)
monitoring project progress against the Baseline Project Plan.
B)
executing the baseline plan.
C)
communicating the project status.
D)
updating project status.
E)
establishing the project initiation plan.
100)
Which of the following states correctly the formality and use of a project
workbook?
A)
In terms of formality, the project workbook would be rated low to medium. In
terms of use, the project workbook would be used to inform and serve as a
permanent record.
B)
In terms of formality, the project workbook would be rated high. In terms of
use, the project workbook would be used to resolve issues.
C)
In terms of formality, the project workbook would be rated high. In terms of
use, the project workbook would be used to inform and serve as a permanent
record.
D)
In terms of formality, the project workbook would be rated low. In terms of
use, the project workbook would be used to resolve issues.
E)
In terms of formality, the project workbook would be rated medium to high. In
terms of use, the project workbook would be used to resolve issues.
101)
Which of the following states correctly the formality and use of hallway
discussions?
A)
In terms of formality, hallway discussions would be rated medium. In terms of
use, hallway discussions would be used to inform.
B)
In terms of formality, hallway discussions would be rated high. In terms of
use, hallway discussions would be used to inform.
C)
In terms of formality, hallway discussions would be rated low. In terms of use,
hallway discussions would be used to inform and resolve issues.
D)
In terms of formality, hallway discussions would be rated high. In terms of
use, hallway discussions would serve as a permanent record.
E)
In terms of formality, hallway discussions would be rated medium to high. In
terms of use, hallway discussions would be used to resolve issues.
102)
The final phase of the project management process that focuses on bringing a
project to an end is called:
A)
project evaluation.
B)
project closedown.
C)
project initiation and planning.
D)
project review.
E)
project implementation.
103)
Ensuring that all contractual terms of the project have been met is done
during:
A)
conducting postproject reviews.
B)
closing the customer contract.
C)
setting a baseline project plan.
D)
communicating the project status.
E)
project implementation.
104)
Determining the strengths and weaknesses of project deliverables, the processes
used to create them, and the project management process is done during:
A)
conducting postproject reviews.
B)
closing down the project.
C)
establishing the communication plan.
D)
communicating the project status.
E)
closing the customer contract.
105)
Any person, group of people, piece of equipment, or material used in accomplishing
an activity is referred to as a(n):
A)
entity.
B)
agent.
C)
resource.
D)
identifier.
E)
expense.
106)
A scheduling technique where the order and duration of the sequence of
activities directly affect the completion date of a project refers to:
A)
sequencing strategy.
B)
Gantt scheduling.
C)
critical path scheduling.
D)
activity scheduling.
E)
task management.
107)
A critical path refers to:
A)
a sequence of task activities whose order and durations indirectly affect the
completion date of a project.
B)
a sequence of task activities whose order and durations directly affect the
completion date of a project.
C)
a sequence of task activities whose order must be performed in parallel.
D)
a sequence of task activities whose duration cannot last more than 40 percent
of the time allotted to the project.
E)
none of the above.
108)
A technique that uses optimistic, pessimistic, and realistic time to calculate
the expected time for a particular task best defines:
A)
Gantt.
B)
Computer Aided Software Engineering (CASE).
C)
Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT).
D)
flowcharting.
E)
Unified Modeling Language (UML).
109)
Optimistic time refers to:
A)
the maximum period of time for an activity to be completed.
B)
the minimum period of time for an activity to be completed.
C)
the planner's "best guess" of the amount of time the activity
actually will require for completion.
D)
the maximum period of time for an entire project to be completed.
E)
the average period of time for an activity to be completed.
110)
Pessimistic time refers to:
A)
the maximum period of time for an activity to be completed.
B)
the minimum period of time for an activity to be completed.
C)
the planner's "best guess" of the amount of time the activity
actually will require for completion.
D)
the maximum period of time for an entire project to be completed.
E)
the average period of time for an activity to be completed.
111)
Realistic time refers to:
A)
the maximum period of time for an activity to be completed.
B)
the minimum period of time for an activity to be completed.
C)
the planner's "best guess" of the amount of time the activity
actually will require for completion.
D)
the maximum period of time for an entire project to be completed.
E)
the average period of time for an activity to be completed.
112)
What would be the estimated time for completion if the time estimates for
report design are as follows: optimistic = 3 weeks; pessimistic = 9 weeks;
realistic = 6 weeks?
A)
3 weeks
B)
5 weeks
C)
36 weeks
D)
6 weeks
E)
18 weeks
113)
What would be the estimated time for completion if time estimates for
programming are as follows: optimistic = 4 weeks; pessimistic = 6 weeks;
realistic = 5 weeks?
A)
5 weeks
B)
6 weeks
C)
15 weeks
D)
3 weeks
E)
30 weeks
114)
What would be the estimated time for completion if time estimates for
installation are as follows: optimistic = 1 week; pessimistic = 1 week;
realistic = 1 week?
A)
5 weeks
B)
12 weeks
C)
6 weeks
D)
3 weeks
E)
1 week
115)
Which of the following is true regarding Gantt chart construction?
A)
Squares are used to represent activities.
B)
To construct the Gantt chart, a horizontal bar is drawn for each activity that
reflects its sequence and duration.
C)
To show precedence relationships, arrows are used to connect the nodes.
D)
Arrows are used to reflect the sequence of activities.
E)
Ellipses are used to represent activities.
116)
Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding Network diagrams?
A)
All activities with a slack time equal to zero are on the critical path.
B)
Nodes not on the critical path can be delayed (for some amount of time) without
delaying the final completion of the project.
C)
The latest expected completion time refers to the time in which an activity can
be completed without delaying the project.
D)
To construct a Network diagram, a horizontal bar is drawn for each activity
that reflects its sequence and duration.
E)
The critical path of a Network diagram is represented by the sequence of
connected activities that produce the longest overall time period.
117)
The amount of time that an activity can be delayed without delaying the project
refers to:
A)
noncritical time.
B)
slack time.
C)
down time.
D)
delay time.
E)
stop time.
118)
Slack time is equal to:
A)
the difference between an activity's latest and earliest expected completion
time.
B)
the latest expected completion time.
C)
the difference between the start time and realistic time for each activity.
D)
the sum of an activity's latest and earliest expected completion time.
E)
the difference between the optimistic time and pessimistic time for an
activity.
119)
Which of the following slack times indicates that an activity is on the
critical path?
A)
1
B)
10
C)
0
D)
2
E)
5
120)
Which of the following refers to the time in which an activity can be completed
without delaying the project?
A)
Latest expected completion time
B)
Earliest expected completion time
C)
Delay time
D)
End time
E)
Critical time
121)
Automated tools available to help you manage a development project are referred
to as:
A)
diagram generators.
B)
project management software.
C)
systems development software.
D)
desktop publishing software.
E)
utility software.
122)
An example of a project management system is:
A)
Word Perfect.
B)
Microsoft Office.
C)
Microsoft Project for Windows.
D)
Lotus 1-2-3.
E)
QuarkXpress.
123)
The first phase of the systems development life cycle is:
A)
systems planning and selection.
B)
systems study.
C)
systems analysis.
D)
systems design.
E)
systems implementation and operation.
124)
Which of the following is one of the three primary activities associated with
identifying and selecting IS development projects?
A)
Preliminary investigation of the system problem or opportunity
B)
Identification of potential development projects
C)
Requirements determination
D)
Generate alternative initial designs
E)
Requirements structuring
125)
A department head deciding which project requests to submit is an example of:
A)
a preliminary investigation of the system problem or opportunity.
B)
identifying potential development projects.
C)
requirements determination.
D)
generating alternative initial designs.
E)
requirements structuring.
126)
Research has found that projects identified by top management more often:
A)
have a narrow, tactical focus.
B)
reflect diversity and have a cross-functional focus.
C)
have a strategic, organizational focus.
D)
will integrate easily with existing hardware and systems.
E)
have a very low systems development priority.
127)
Research has found that projects identified by individual departments or
business units most often:
A)
have a narrow, tactical focus.
B)
reflect diversity and have a cross-functional focus.
C)
have a strategic, organizational focus.
D)
will integrate easily with existing hardware and systems.
E)
have a very high systems development priority.
128)
Potential development projects can be identified by:
A)
a steering committee.
B)
top management.
C)
a senior IS manager.
D)
user departments.
E)
all of the above.
129)
Which of the following possible project sources most often reflects the broader
needs of the organization?
A)
User department
B)
Development group
C)
IS manager
D)
Top management
E)
Production manager
130)
Which of the following alternative methods for making information systems
identification and selection decisions has the highest associated cost?
A)
Development group
B)
User department
C)
Steering committee
D)
Top management
E)
End user
131)
Which of the following alternative methods for making information systems
identification and selection decisions has as its focus integration with
existing systems?
A)
Development group
B)
User department
C)
Steering committee
D)
Top management
E)
End user
132)
The extent to which the project is viewed as improving profits, customer
service, etc., and the duration of these benefits best defines which of the
following evaluation criteria?
A)
Potential benefits
B)
Resource availability
C)
Technical difficulty or risks
D)
Strategic alignment
E)
Value chain analysis
133)
The extent to which the project is viewed as helping the organization achieve
its strategic objectives and long-term goals describes:
A)
potential benefits.
B)
resource availability.
C)
technical difficulty or risks.
D)
strategic alignment.
E)
value chain analysis.
134)
Analyzing an organization's activities to determine where value is added to
products and/or services and the costs incurred best describes:
A)
affinity clustering.
B)
business process reengineering.
C)
value chain analysis.
D)
resource availability.
E)
technical difficulty.
135)
The primary deliverable from the project identification and selection phase is:
A)
a context data flow diagram.
B)
at least three substantively different system design strategies for building
the replacement information system.
C)
the development of a new version of the software and new versions of all design
documents.
D)
an entity relationship diagram.
E)
a schedule of specific IS development projects.
136)
If the project team and organizational officials reassess the project after
each subsequent SDLC phase to determine if the business conditions have changed
or if a more detailed understanding of a system's costs, benefits, and risks
suggest that the project is not as worthy as previously thought, they are:
A)
adhering to the incremental commitment principle.
B)
overly cautious.
C)
using a CASE methodology.
D)
adhering to a bottom-up commitment principle.
E)
using a staged approached to systems development.
137)
As a rule of thumb estimate, what percentage of the entire development effort
should be devoted to the project initiation and planning process?
A)
Between 10 and 20 percent
B)
Less than 5 percent
C)
Less than 10 percent
D)
Between 20 and 30 percent
E)
Over 50 percent
138)
Activities designed to assist in organizing a team to conduct project planning
is the focus of:
A)
project development.
B)
project identification and selection.
C)
project initiation.
D)
analysis.
E)
implementation and operation.
139)
Which of the following is NOT a project initiation activity?
A)
Establishing management procedures
B)
Dividing the project into manageable tasks
C)
Establishing a relationship with the customer
D)
Establishing the project initiation team
E)
Establishing the project initiation plan
140)
Which of the following is a project initiation activity?
A)
Developing a preliminary schedule
B)
Setting a baseline project plan
C)
Determining project standards and procedures
D)
Establishing a relationship with the customer
E)
Developing a communication plan
141)
The objective of the project planning process is the development of:
A)
a Baseline Project Plan and Project Scope Statement.
B)
a Systems Service Request.
C)
entity relationship diagrams.
D)
corporate strategic plan.
E)
an information systems plan.
142)
The Baseline Project Plan:
A)
contains all information collected and analyzed during project initiation and
planning.
B)
specifies detailed project activities for the next life cycle phase, analysis,
and less detail for subsequent project phases.
C)
is used by the project selection committee to help decide if the project should
be accepted, redirected, or canceled.
D)
reflects the best estimate of the project's scope, benefits, costs, risks, and
resource requirements given the current understanding of the project.
E)
does all of the above.
143)
A major outcome and deliverable from project initiation and planning that
reflects the best estimate of the project's scope, benefits, costs, risks, and
resource requirements defines the:
A)
Baseline Project Plan.
B)
Information Systems Plan.
C)
Mission Statement.
D)
Resource Requirements Statement.
E)
Systems Service Request.
144)
Which of the following is a project planning activity?
A)
Establishing management procedures
B)
Establishing a relationship with the customer
C)
Estimating resources and creating a resource plan
D)
Establishing the project management environment and project workbook
E)
Establishing the project initiation plan
145)
Which of the following is NOT a project planning activity?
A)
Determining project standards and procedures
B)
Establishing management procedures
C)
Developing a Statement of Work
D)
Dividing the project into manageable tasks
E)
Developing a communication plan
146)
A major outcome and deliverable from the project initiation and planning phase
that contains an estimate of the project's scope, benefits, costs, risks, and
resource requirements best defines:
A)
Baseline Project Plan.
B)
Information Systems Plan.
C)
Business Case.
D)
Statement of Work.
E)
System Service Request.
147)
To identify the financial benefits and costs associated with the development
project is the purpose of:
A)
financial feasibility.
B)
technical feasibility.
C)
operational feasibility.
D)
economic feasibility.
E)
schedule feasibility.
148)
Tangible benefits would include:
A)
improved organizational planning.
B)
ability to investigate more alternatives.
C)
improved asset control.
D)
lower transaction costs.
E)
first to market.
149)
Cost reduction and avoidance, error reduction, and increased flexibility are
examples of:
A)
intangible benefits.
B)
qualitative benefits.
C)
tangible benefits.
D)
legal and contractual benefits.
E)
profitable benefits.
150)
A savings of $5,000 resulting from data entry error reductions would most
likely be classified as a(n):
A)
intangible benefit.
B)
qualitative benefit.
C)
tangible benefit.
D)
operational benefit.
E)
profitable benefit.
151)
A benefit derived from the creation of an information system that can be
measured in dollars and with certainty is a(n):
A)
intangible benefit.
B)
qualitative benefit.
C)
tangible benefit.
D)
operational benefit.
E)
profitable benefit.
152)
The reduction of waste creation is an example of a(n):
A)
intangible benefit.
B)
qualitative benefit.
C)
tangible benefit.
D)
operational benefit.
E)
profitable benefit.
153)
A cost associated with an information system that can be measured in dollars
and with certainty best describes:
A)
economic cost.
B)
tangible cost.
C)
intangible cost.
D)
one-time cost.
E)
measurable cost.
154)
Which of the following would be classified as a tangible cost?
A)
Loss of customer goodwill
B)
Cost of hardware
C)
Employee morale
D)
Operational inefficiency
E)
Not all customers use the Internet.
155)
Which of the following would be classified as an intangible cost?
A)
Hardware costs
B)
Labor costs
C)
Employee morale
D)
Operational costs
E)
Internet service setup fee
156)
A cost associated with project start-up and development or system start-up
refers to a(n):
A)
recurring cost.
B)
one-time cost.
C)
incremental cost.
D)
infrequent cost.
E)
consumable cost.
157)
A cost associated with an information system that cannot be easily measured in
terms of dollars or with certainty refers to a(n):
A)
economic cost.
B)
tangible cost.
C)
intangible cost.
D)
one-time cost.
E)
nonconsumable cost.
158)
A cost resulting from the ongoing evolution and use of a system best defines
a(n):
A)
recurring cost.
B)
one-time cost.
C)
incremental cost.
D)
frequent cost.
E)
variable cost.
159)
Application software maintenance, new software and hardware leases, and
incremental communications are examples of:
A)
recurring costs.
B)
one-time costs.
C)
incremental costs.
D)
frequent costs.
E)
consumable costs.
160)
The concept of comparing present cash outlays to future expected returns best
defines:
A)
cost/benefit analysis.
B)
internal rate of return.
C)
time value of money.
D)
investment return analysis.
E)
monetary futures analysis.
161)
The interest rate used to compute the present value of future cash flows refers
to:
A)
discount rate.
B)
investment rate.
C)
transfer rate.
D)
future cash flow rate.
E)
valuation rate.
162)
The current value of a future cash flow is referred to as:
A)
future value.
B)
present value.
C)
investment value.
D)
discount rate.
E)
cash flow rate.
163)
The analysis technique that uses a discount rate determined from the company's
cost of capital to establish the present value of a project is commonly called:
A)
return on investment (ROI).
B)
break-even analysis (BEA).
C)
net present value (NPV).
D)
future value (FV).
E)
Currency Rate Analysis (CRA).
164)
The ratio of the net cash receipts of the project divided by the cash outlays
of the project, enabling trade-off analysis to be made between competing
projects, is often referred to as:
A)
return on investment (ROI).
B)
break-even analysis (BEA).
C)
net present value (NPV).
D)
future value (FV).
E)
Currency Rate Analysis (CRA).
165)
The analysis technique that finds the amount of time required for the
cumulative cash flow from a project to equal its initial and ongoing investment
is referred to as:
A)
return on investment (ROI).
B)
break-even analysis (BEA).
C)
net present value (NPV).
D)
future value (FV).
E)
Currency Rate Analysis (CRA).
166)
To gain an understanding of the organization's ability to construct the
proposed system is the goal of:
A)
operational feasibility.
B)
schedule feasibility.
C)
technical feasibility.
D)
political feasibility.
E)
construction feasibility.
167)
An assessment of the development group's understanding of the possible target
hardware, software, and operating environments, system size, complexity, and
the group's experience with similar systems should be included as part of:
A)
technical feasibility.
B)
political feasibility.
C)
operational feasibility.
D)
schedule feasibility.
E)
construction feasibility.
168)
Which of the following is a section of the Baseline Project Plan?
A)
Management Issues
B)
System Description
C)
Introduction
D)
Feasibility Assessment
E)
All of the above
169)
The Project Scope Statement:
A)
is a short document prepared for the customer that describes what the project
will deliver and outlines all work required to complete the project.
B)
is useful for ensuring that both you and your customer gain a common understanding
of the project.
C)
is an easy document to create because it typically consists of a high-level
summary of the BPP information.
D)
can be used as the basis of a formal contractual agreement outlining firm
deadlines, costs, and specifications.
E)
is all of the above.
170)
A document prepared for the customer during project initiation and planning
that describes what the project will deliver and outlines generally at a high
level all work required to complete the project is the:
A)
Information Systems Plan.
B)
Project Scope Statement.
C)
Mission Statement.
D)
Baseline Project Plan.
E)
Systems Service Request.
171)
A peer-group review of any product created during the systems development
process is called a(n):
A)
baseline project plan.
B)
structured workflow.
C)
structured walkthrough.
D)
statement of work.
E)
none of the above.
172)
All of the following might attend a structured walkthrough meeting EXCEPT:
A)
CEO
B)
Standards Bearer
C)
User
D)
Maintenance Oracle
E)
Coordinator
173)
An Internet-based communication that supports business-to-business activities
best describes:
A)
Internet.
B)
electronic commerce.
C)
electronic data interchange.
D)
extranet.
E)
intranet.
174)
The use of telecommunications technologies to transfer business documents
directly between organizations best defines:
A)
electronic delivery.
B)
computer conferencing.
C)
extranet exchange.
D)
electronic data interchange (EDI).
E)
electronic commerce.