Information Systems Today, 5e (Valacich/Schneider)
Chapter
6: Enhancing Business Intelligence Using Information Systems
1)
Which of the following statements is true about business intelligence?
A)
It is the act of outsourcing tasks, traditionally performed by an employee or
contractor, to an undefined, large group of people or community, through the
use of information technology.
B)
It is the process by which a customer-owned mutual organization or co-operative
changes legal form to a joint stock company.
C)
It is the use of information systems to gather and analyze information from
internal and external sources in order to make better business decisions.
D)
It is an organization's process of defining its strategy, or direction, and
making decisions on allocating its resources to pursue this strategy, including
its capital and people.
E)
It is the use of human resources to gather and analyze information from
external sources in order to make better business decisions.
2)
"Backward looking" budgets are typically based on ________.
A)
forecasts
B)
marketing research
C)
future trends
D)
historical data
E)
current market conditions
3)
Responding to threats and opportunities and continuous planning is based on
analyzing data from the ________ level of the organization.
A)
operational
B)
executive
C)
tactical
D)
business
E)
strategic
4)
Taking entities as tables, each row is a ________.
A)
field
B)
record
C)
attribute
D)
form
E)
query
5)
Taking entities as tables, each column is a(n)
________.
A)
attribute
B)
record
C)
form
D)
bot
E)
query
6)
An attribute is also referred to as a(n) ________.
A)
form
B)
record
C)
field
D)
query
E)
bot
7)
A(n) ________ is a collection of related attributes
about a single instance of an entity.
A)
bot
B)
form
C)
query
D)
field
E)
record
8)
In DBMS, data are kept separate from the applications' programming code. This
means that ________.
A)
an application cannot be changed without making
changes to the database
B)
an application's programming code needs to be updated
continuously to keep up with the database
C)
an application needs to be changed when database is
changed
D)
database does not need to be changed if a change is
made to an application
E)
database needs to be changed when a change is made to
an application
9)
A common way to represent a data model is a(n)
________.
A)
entity-relationship diagram
B)
normalization diagram
C)
report-query diagram
D)
form-record diagram
E)
report generator
10)
Data type helps the DBMS ________.
A)
present the data in a useful format
B)
format data
C)
allocate storage space
D)
eliminate data duplication
E)
retrieve information
11)
To finalize the data model in order to actually build the database, a process
called ________ is used to make sure the database will operate efficiently.
A)
slicing and dicing
B)
normalization
C)
clustering
D)
visualization
E)
inferencing
12)
In DBMS, normalization helps to ________.
A)
eliminate data duplication
B)
retrieve information
C)
format data
D)
present the data in a useful format
E)
allocate storage space
13)
Once the data model is created, the format of the data is documented in a(n) ________.
A)
data warehouse
B)
data mart
C)
expert system
D)
data type
E)
data dictionary
14)
A data dictionary is also known as ________.
A)
data mart
B)
data warehouse
C)
metadata repository
D)
entity-relationship diagram
E)
clickstream data
15)
Bringes, a retail chain, has retail stores across
three states. With its current legacy system, Bringes
is having problems tracking the inventory levels for its stores. It is planning
to implement Oracle database systems to replace this legacy system. Which of
the following most supports Bringes' decision to
replace its legacy system with an Oracle database system?
A)
Implementing Oracle database system means hiring additional specialized
personnel to manage it.
B)
Partial implementation of the Oracle database system can create more problems
than it solves.
C)
Conversion cost required for the implementation of Oracle database system is
supported by IT budgets.
D)
Bringes' channel partners use a database system that
supports the Oracle database system.
E)
Maintenance cost of an Oracle database system is more than the legacy system
presently in use.
16)
Treston, an automobile manufacturer, has recently
implemented a new database system. It is confident that this system will help
enhance the company's internal (employees) and external (customers and channel
partners) communication. Treston is planning to
pursue a just-in-time inventory system soon after the database system is
implemented. After the implementation of the database system, however, Treston realized that the database system was not
effective. Which of the following, if true, can be cited as a reason for the
failure of Treston's database system?
A)
Microsoft launched a new version of Enterprise Microsoft Access which is better
than Treston's database system.
B)
The maintenance cost of Treston's new database system
was three times more than the one it was previously using.
C)
Treston's new database system was not supported by
the database system of its suppliers and distributors.
D)
Treston's competitors implemented its database a few
days prior to Treston's implementation date.
E)
Treston had to hire specialized personnel to manage
its new database system, which added to its costs.
17)
Business rules are captured by the designers of the database and included in
the data dictionary to ________.
A)
organize and sort the data, complete calculations, and
allocate storage space
B)
prevent illegal or illogical entries from entering the
database
C)
eliminate data duplication
D)
make sure that each table contains only attributes
that are related to the entity
E)
capture the structure of the database
18)
________ are used to capture data to be added,
modified, or deleted from the database.
A)
Forms
B)
Reports
C)
Queries
D)
Bots
E)
Layers
19)
A(n) ________ is a compilation of data from the
database that is organized and produced in printed format.
A)
form
B)
attribute
C)
field
D)
entity
E)
report
20)
A query is used to ________.
A)
organize and sort the data in a database
B)
allocate storage space for a database
C)
eliminate data duplication
D)
retrieve information from a database
E)
prevent illegal or illogical entries from entering the
database
21)
Which of the following statements is true about query by example capabilities
in a database?
A)
It helps to create a query quickly and easily.
B)
It refers to immediate automated responses to the requests of users.
C)
It is designed to handle multiple concurrent transactions from customers.
D)
Its primary use is gathering new information.
E)
It prevents illegal entries into a database.
22)
The systems that are used to interact with customers and run a business in real
time are called ________.
A)
tactical systems
B)
strategic systems
C)
operational systems
D)
informational systems
E)
executive systems
23)
________ is the data that is deemed most important in the operation of a
business.
A)
Metadata
B)
Master data
C)
Reference data
D)
Query data
E)
Tactical data
24)
Which of the following statements is true about an operational system?
A)
Its primary purpose is to support managerial decision making.
B)
It consists of historical or point-in-time data.
C)
Its goal is to enhance ease of access and use.
D)
It consists of narrow and simple updates and queries.
E)
It is primarily used by managers.
25)
Which of the following statements is true about informational systems?
A)
Its primary purpose is to run the business on a current basis.
B)
It is primarily used by online customers, clerks, salespersons, and
administrators.
C)
It consists of narrow and simple updates and queries.
D)
Its goal is to enhance performance.
E)
Its goal is to enhance ease of access and use.
26)
________ integrates data from various operational systems.
A)
Data warehouse
B)
Metadata repository
C)
Data modeling
D)
Master data
E)
Data mining
27)
The purpose of a data warehouse is to ________.
A)
standardize the format of data retrieved from
different systems
B)
allow managers to run queries and reports themselves
without having to know query languages or the structure of the underlying data
C)
provide capabilities for discovering
"hidden" predictive relationships in the data
D)
put key business information into the hands of more
decision makers
E)
reduce the complexity of the data to be analyzed
28)
________ refers to the process of standardizing the format of data retrieved
from different systems.
A)
Data cleansing
B)
Data mining
C)
Normalization
D)
Content mining
E)
Clustering
29)
A ________ is a data warehouse that is limited in scope.
A)
metadata repository
B)
master data
C)
data model
D)
data reduction
E)
data mart
30)
Which of the following statements is true about a data mart?
A)
It standardizes the format of data retrieved from different systems.
B)
It contains selected information from the data warehouse.
C)
It stores master data only.
D)
It is is a compilation of data from the database that
is organized and produced in printed format.
E)
It helps to eliminate data duplication.
31)
Information and knowledge discovery tools are used primarily to ________.
A)
standardize the format of data retrieved from
different systems
B)
reduce the complexity of the data to be analyzed
C)
extract information from existing data
D)
discover "hidden" predictive relationships
in the data
E)
allow managers to learn query language for the
effective maintenance of the database
32)
________ are produced at predefined intervals to
support routine decisions.
A)
Ad hoc queries
B)
Exception reports
C)
Drill-down reports
D)
Scheduled reports
E)
Key-indicator reports
33)
Which of the following statements is true about key-indicator reports?
A)
They provide a summary of critical information on a recurring schedule.
B)
They help analyze why a key indicator is not at an appropriate level or why an
exception occurred.
C)
They are produced at predefined intervals to support routine decisions.
D)
They highlight situations that are out of the normal range.
E)
They answer unplanned information requests to support a nonroutine
decision.
34)
Which of the following statements is true about exception reports?
A)
They help analyze why a key indicator is not at an appropriate level or why an
exception occurred.
B)
They are produced at predefined intervals to support routine decisions.
C)
They answer unplanned information requests to support a nonroutine
decision.
D)
They provide a summary of critical information on a recurring schedule.
E)
They highlight situations that are out of the normal range.
35)
________ help analyze why a key indicator is not at an appropriate level or why
an exception occurred.
A)
Ad hoc queries
B)
Exception reports
C)
Drill-down reports
D)
Scheduled reports
E)
Key-indicator reports
36)
Which of the following statements is true about ad hoc queries?
A)
They are produced at predefined intervals to support routine decisions.
B)
They provide a summary of critical information on a recurring schedule.
C)
They help analyze why a key indicator is not at an appropriate level or why an
exception occurred.
D)
They answer unplanned information requests to support a nonroutine
decision.
E)
They highlight situations that are out of the normal range.
37)
________ refers to the process of quickly conducting complex, multidimensional
analyses of data stored in a database that is optimized for retrieval,
typically using graphical software tools.
A)
Inferencing
B)
Online analytical processing
C)
Normalization
D)
Data mining
E)
Predictive analysis
38)
Online analytical processing tools enable users to ________.
A)
discover "hidden" predictive relationships
in the data
B)
find associations or correlations among sets of items
C)
analyze different dimensions of data beyond simple
data summaries
D)
group related records together on the basis of having
similar values for attributes
E)
extract textual information from Web documents
39)
Which of the following statements is true about online analytical processing
server?
A)
It is a data structure allowing for multiple dimensions to be added to a
traditional two-dimensional table.
B)
It groups related records together on the basis of having similar values for
attributes.
C)
It allows you to make hypothetical changes to the data associated with a
problem and observe how these changes influence the results.
D)
It uses reasoning methods based on knowledge about a specific problem domain in
order to provide advice.
E)
It understands how data is organized in the database and has special functions
for analyzing the data.
40)
How do online analytical processing systems improve performance?
A)
They preaggregate data so that only the subset of the
data necessary for the queries is extracted.
B)
They use reasoning methods based on knowledge about a specific problem domain.
C)
They make hypothetical changes to the data associated with a problem.
D)
They allow for multiple dimensions to be added to a traditional two-dimensional
table.
E)
They provide capabilities for discovering "hidden" predictive
relationships in the data.
41)
In online analytic processing systems, ________ are the values or numbers the
user wants to analyze.
A)
dimensions
B)
forms
C)
measures
D)
queries
E)
entities
42)
In online analytic processing systems, ________ provide a way to summarize the
data.
A)
forms
B)
measures
C)
facts
D)
records
E)
dimensions
43)
Which of the following statements is true about the online analytic processing
cube?
A)
It allows you to make hypothetical changes to the data associated with a
problem and observe how these changes influence the results.
B)
It groups related records together on the basis of having similar values for
attributes.
C)
It understands how data is organized in the database and has special functions
for analyzing the data.
D)
It is a data structure allowing for multiple dimensions to be added to a
traditional two-dimensional table.
E)
It uses reasoning methods based on knowledge about a specific problem domain in
order to provide advice.
44)
Data mining complements online analytic processing in that it ________.
A)
finds associations or correlations among sets of items
B)
provides capabilities for discovering
"hidden" predictive relationships in the data
C)
extracts textual information from Web documents
D)
groups related records together on the basis of having
similar values for attributes
E)
analyzes different dimensions of data beyond simple
data summaries
45)
________ can be achieved by rolling up a data cube to the smallest level of
aggregation needed, reducing the dimensionality, or dividing continuous
measures into discrete intervals.
A)
Data cleansing
B)
Normalization
C)
Clustering
D)
Data reduction
E)
Inferencing
46)
Which of the following statements is true about association discovery?
A)
It is a technique used to find correlations among sets of items.
B)
It is the process of grouping related records together on the basis of having
similar values for attributes.
C)
It is the use of analytical techniques for extracting information from textual
documents.
D)
It is a type of intelligent system that uses reasoning methods based on
knowledge about a specific problem domain in order to provide advice.
E)
It makes sure that each table contains only attributes that are related to the
entity.
47)
________ is the process of grouping related records together on the basis of
having similar values for attributes.
A)
Normalization
B)
Data mining
C)
Clustering
D)
Inferencing
E)
Slicing and dicing
48)
Which of the following is a recording of a user's path through a Web site?
A)
clustering
B)
normalization
C)
slicing and dicing
D)
clickstream data
E)
inferencing
49)
________ is the ability to attract and keep visitors.
A)
Normalization
B)
Inferencing
C)
Stickiness
D)
Crowdsourcing
E)
Visualization
50)
Which of the following analysis are you conducting to make hypothetical changes
to the data associated with a problem and observe how these changes influence
the results?
A)
predictive analysis
B)
time-series analysis
C)
linear regression analysis
D)
what-if analysis
E)
multivariate analysis
51)
Which of the following statements is true about expert systems?
A)
It is composed of a network of processing elements that work in parallel to
complete a task, attempt to approximate the functioning of the human brain and
can learn by example.
B)
It is a program that works in the background to provide some service when a
specific event occurs.
C)
It uses reasoning methods based on knowledge about a specific problem domain in
order to provide advice.
D)
It allows you to make hypothetical changes to the data associated with a
problem and observe how these changes influence the results.
E)
It groups related records together on the basis of having similar values for
attributes.
52)
Which of the following statements is true about a rule in expert systems?
A)
It groups related records together on the basis of having similar values for
attributes.
B)
It makes sure that each table contains only attributes that are related to the
entity.
C)
It allows multiple dimensions to be added to a traditional two-dimensional
table.
D)
It is typically expressed using an "if––then" format.
E)
It allows you to make hypothetical changes to the data associated with a
problem and observe how these changes influence the results.
53)
________ allows expert system rules to be represented using approximations or
subjective values in order to handle situations where information about a
problem is incomplete.
A)
Fuzzy logic
B)
Normalization
C)
Clustering
D)
What-if analysis
E)
Stickiness
54)
The processing in an ES is called ________.
A)
clustering
B)
inferencing
C)
normalization
D)
recommending
E)
data cleansing
55)
Which of the following statements is true about neural networks?
A)
It allows multiple dimensions to be added to a traditional two-dimensional
table.
B)
It works in the background to provide some service when a specific event
occurs.
C)
It attempts to approximate the functioning of the human brain and can learn by
example.
D)
It uses reasoning methods based on knowledge about a specific problem domain in
order to provide advice.
E)
It helps analyze why a key indicator is not at an appropriate level or why an
exception occurred.
56)
Which of the following statements is true about user agents?
A)
They are also known as Web spiders.
B)
They are agents that search to find the best price for a particular product you
wish to purchase.
C)
They are agents that continuously analyze large data warehouses to detect
changes deemed important by a user.
D)
They are agents that automatically perform a task for a user.
E)
They are agents designed by spammers and other Internet attackers to farm
e-mail addresses off Web sites or deposit spyware on machines.
57)
Which of the following is a role of monitoring and sensing agents?
A)
tracking inventory levels
B)
sending a report at the first of the month
C)
assembling customized news
D)
analyzing data warehouses to detect changes deemed
important to a user
E)
finding the best price for a particular product the
user wants to purchase
58)
Which of the following is a role of data mining agents?
A)
tracking inventory levels
B)
sending a report at the first of the month
C)
assembling customized news
D)
analyzing data warehouses to detect changes deemed
important to a user
E)
finding the best price for a particular product the
user wants to purchase
59)
Which of the following statements is true about explicit knowledge assets?
A)
It reflects the processes and procedures that are located in a person's mind on
how to effectively perform a particular task.
B)
It reflects the person's ability to effectively solve a problem without
external help.
C)
It reflects knowledge that can be documented, archived, and codified, often
with the help of information systems.
D)
It reflects an individual's special knowledge about a new-to-the-world product.
E)
It reflects the strategies that are located in a person's mind on how to
effectively perform a particular task.
60)
Which of the following is the primary goal of a knowledge management system?
A)
Identifying how to recognize, generate, store, share, and manage tacit
knowledge.
B)
Continuously analyzing large data warehouses to detect changes deemed important
by a user.
C)
Grouping related records together on the basis of having similar values for
attributes.
D)
Allowing hypothetical changes to the data associated with a problem to observe
how these changes influence the results.
E)
Identifying how to recognize, generate, store, share, and manage explicit
knowledge.
61)
Social network analysis is a technique that attempts to ________.
A)
analyze large data warehouses to detect changes deemed
important by a user
B)
analyze why a key indicator is not at an appropriate
level or why an exception occurred
C)
discover "hidden" predictive relationships
in the data
D)
allow hypothetical changes to the data associated with
a problem to observe how these changes influence the results
E)
find experts in particular subject areas
62)
________ refers to the display of complex data relationships using a variety of
graphical methods.
A)
Normalization
B)
Visualization
C)
Clustering
D)
Inferencing
E)
Textual mining
63)
Which of the following statements is true about digital dashboards?
A)
It is the combination of various analysis techniques and interactive
visualization to solve complex problems.
B)
It supports usage models like push reporting, exception reporting and alerts,
and pull reporting.
C)
It can visualize features and relationships between features drawn from an
underlying geographic database.
D)
Analysts can combine geographic, demographic, and other data for locating
target customers.
E)
It a system for creating, storing, analyzing, and managing geographically
referenced information.
64)
Digital dashboards provide the decision makers with a quick overview of key
performance indicators and other key operational statistics and trends. This
usage model is known as ________.
A)
exception reporting
B)
pull reporting
C)
ad hoc reporting
D)
drill-down reporting
E)
push reporting
65)
While using digital dashboards, pull reporting is conducted to ________.
A)
alert the user of any items that require immediate
attention
B)
provide the decision makers with a quick overview of
key performance indicators
C)
discover "hidden" predictive relationships
in the data
D)
analyze the root causes of an exception
E)
extract textual information from Web documents
66)
Which of the following statements is true about hard data?
A)
It involves the use of text mining technologies.
B)
It includes nonanalytical information.
C)
It involves input from dedicated personnel.
D)
It includes textual news stories.
E)
It includes facts and numbers.
67)
Which of the following explains the phrase "data is geocoded"?
A)
It is transformed into coordinates.
B)
It is shared in the Internet.
C)
It is used to create Web pages.
D)
It is compared with similar historical data.
E)
It is converted into soft data.
Chapter
7: Enhancing Business Processes Using Enterprise Information Systems
1)
Traditionally, companies are organized around four distinct functional areas.
Which of the following is one of those four areas?
A)
supply chain management
B)
risk management
C)
technology management
D)
communication management
E)
systems management
2)
Which of the following is a core business process?
A)
time-to-purchase
B)
make-to-stock
C)
plan-to-produce
D)
account-to-report
E)
hire-to-retire
3)
Whenever an order is placed with online retailers, the retailers put together
the order, ship it, and charge the customer's credit card. This process of
selling a product or service is known as the ________ process.
A)
make-to-order
B)
time-to-market
C)
order-to-cash
D)
procure-to-pay
E)
make-to-stock
4)
For most businesses, the ________ process entails subprocesses
such as creating a customer record; checking the customer's creditworthiness;
creating an order; checking and allocating stock; picking, packing, and
shipping; invoicing; and collecting the payment.
A)
order-to-cash
B)
make-to-order
C)
procure-to-pay
D)
make-to-stock
E)
plan-to-produce
5)
An online retailer has finished creating a customer record. What should the
retailer do next in an order-to-cash process?
A)
create order
B)
allocate stock
C)
pick, pack, and ship
D)
prepare and send invoice
E)
check customer credit
6)
In the order-to-cash process, once "checking credit" is done, it is
followed by ________.
A)
collecting payment
B)
creating an order
C)
allocating stock
D)
picking, packing, and shipping
E)
preparing and sending the invoice
7)
An online retailer has just finished creating an order for a customer. In an
order-to-cash process what should the retailer do next?
A)
collect payment
B)
create customer record
C)
allocate stock
D)
pick, pack, and ship
E)
prepare and send invoice
8)
The processes associated with the acquiring of goods from external vendors are
together referred to as the ________ process.
A)
make-to-stock
B)
make-to-order
C)
order-to-cash
D)
plan-to-produce
E)
procure-to-pay
9)
Which of the following is typically the first step in the procure-to-pay
process?
A)
negotiate price and terms
B)
issue purchase order
C)
receive goods
D)
receive invoice
E)
settle payment
10)
In the procure-to-pay process, the negotiation of price and terms is followed
by ________.
A)
settling the payment
B)
creating the customer record
C)
issuing the purchase order
D)
receiving the goods
E)
receiving the invoice
11)
________ immediately after the purchase order is issued in the procure-to-pay
process.
A)
Payment is settled
B)
Price and terms are negotiated
C)
Credit is checked
D)
Goods are received
E)
Invoices are received
12)
Receiving the goods is immediately followed by ________ in the procure-to-pay
process.
A)
settling the payment
B)
negotiating the price and terms
C)
issuing the purchase order
D)
creating the order
E)
receiving the invoice
13)
In the ________ process, goods are produced based on forecasts and are stored
in a warehouse and sales orders are then fulfilled from the inventory.
A)
configure-to-stock
B)
make-to-stock
C)
make-to-order
D)
engineer-to-order
E)
assemble-to-order
14)
Which of the following uses a push-based approach?
A)
order-to-cash
B)
procure-to-pay
C)
production-to-order
D)
make-to-stock
E)
make-to-order
15)
In the ________ process, raw materials, subcomponents, and accessories are
procured based on forecasts, but actual manufacturing does not start until
sales orders are received.
A)
order-to-cash
B)
procure-to-pay
C)
make-to-stock
D)
acquire-to-dispose
E)
make-to-order
16)
Which of the following uses a pull-based approach?
A)
make-to-order
B)
make-to-stock
C)
plan-to-produce
D)
account-to-report
E)
acquire-to-dispose
17)
Which of the following is typically the first step in the make-to-stock
process?
A)
scheduling production
B)
procuring inputs
C)
processing sales orders
D)
negotiating price and terms
E)
creating customer records
18)
Which of the following goods are typically produced under a make-to-order
approach?
A)
expensive high-volume goods
B)
cheap low-volume goods
C)
very expensive low-volume goods
D) mass-produced goods
E)
goods from external vendors
19)
Which of the following goods are produced using the make-to-order approach?
A)
commercial aircraft
B)
shampoos
C)
lipsticks
D)
televisions
E)
refrigerators
20)
________ are performed by the functional areas that
process inputs and produce outputs.
A)
Base activities
B)
Core activities
C)
Support activities
D)
Extended activities
E)
Focus activities
21)
Which of the following is a core activity?
A)
human resource activities
B)
technology development
C)
operations and manufacturing
D)
administrative activities
E)
infrastructure activities
22)
Inbound logistics involves business activities associated with ________.
A)
distributing end products within the order-to-cash
business process
B)
creating marketing literature
C)
communicating with potential and existing customers
D)
receiving and stocking raw materials, parts, and
products
E)
order processing
23)
Assembly processes are ________ activities.
A)
outbound logistics
B)
marketing and sales
C)
customer sales
D)
administrative
E)
operations and manufacturing
24)
Outbound logistics activities focus on the ________.
A)
processing of orders
B)
distribution of end products within the order-to-cash
business process
C)
pricing of goods and services
D)
transformation of raw materials into end products
E)
receiving and stocking of raw materials, parts, and
products
25)
Administrative activities focus on the ________.
A)
design and development of applications that support
the primary business activities
B)
hardware and software that must be implemented to
support the applications that the primary activities use
C)
business activities associated with employee
management
D)
processes and decision making to orchestrate the
day-to-day operations of an organization
E)
purchasing of goods and services that are required as
inputs for the primary activities
26)
The hardware and software that must be implemented to support the applications
that the primary activities use are a part of the ________ activities.
A)
human resources
B)
technology development
C)
procurement
D)
inbound logistics
E)
infrastructure
27)
Which of the following is a support activity?
A)
outbound logistics activities
B)
operations and manufacturing activities
C)
technology development activities
D)
customer service activities
E)
marketing and sales activities
28)
Human resource activities ________.
A)
is classified as a support activity since the primary
activities cannot be accomplished without the employees to perform them
B)
includes the design and development of applications
that support the primary business activities
C)
includes the purchasing of goods and services that are
required as inputs to the primary activities
D)
integrate the internal applications with suppliers,
business partners, and customers
E)
streamline the organization's internal value chain
29)
Designing and developing applications that support the primary business
activities are a part of the ________ activities.
A)
operations and manufacturing
B)
outbound logistics
C)
technology development
D)
procurement
E)
inbound logistics
30)
A(n) ________ information flow consists of information
that is received from another organization.
A)
stand-alone
B)
legacy
C)
packaged
D)
upstream
E)
downstream
31)
A(n) ________ information flow relates to the
information that is produced by a company and sent along to another
organization.
A)
stand-alone
B)
legacy
C)
packaged
D)
custom
E)
downstream
32)
Systems that focus on the specific needs of individual departments and are not
designed to communicate with other systems in the organization are referred to
as ________.
A)
internally focused applications
B)
externally focused systems
C)
stand-alone applications
D)
enterprise-wide systems
E)
enterprise-information systems
33)
Stand-alone systems are also known as ________.
A)
ethernet systems
B)
automated business systems
C)
peripheral systems
D)
legacy systems
E)
converter systems
34)
Legacy systems can prove problematic when information from multiple
departmental systems is required to support business processes and decision
making. Which of the following is most similar to the above scenario?
A)
Chuck's is a retail chain that has an inventory management system which is tied
to an RFID system. This system notifies Chuck's managers when the inventory in its stores fall below a certain level.
B)
Quick Software Solutions has an automated system to track employee absence. It
also uses a non-automated system like attendance registers that employees sign everyday. This
information is updated to Quick's database management system on a weekly basis.
C)
Nuok Tires supplies its products to Fresto, an automobile manufacturer. Nuok
Tires' factories are located close to Fresto's
factories to minimize transportation costs.
D)
Fender, a guitar manufacturer, allows customers to design their guitars online.
Potential buyers need to send this design with the order to receive their
customized guitars.
E)
Jsutmi successfully pursues a just-in-time inventory
system. Recently, however, it has not been able to meet demand due to labor
problems.
35)
A(n) ________ is an integrated suite of business
applications for virtually every department, process, and industry, allowing
companies to integrate information across operations on a company-wide basis
using one large database.
A)
legacy system
B)
management information system
C)
decision support system
D)
distributed system software
E)
enterprise system
36)
An internally focused system helps an organization coordinate with ________.
A)
its suppliers
B)
its business partners
C)
the government
D)
its departments
E)
its customers
37)
A(n) ________ coordinates business processes with
customers, suppliers, and business partners of an organization.
A)
internally focused system
B)
legacy system
C)
stand-alone system
D)
intermediary system
E)
externally focused system
38)
A system that communicates across organizational boundaries is sometimes
referred to as a(n) ________.
A)
legacy system
B)
interorganizational system
C)
intraorganizational system
D)
internally focused system
E)
stand-alone system
39)
________ are applications written by third-party
vendors for the needs of many different users and organizations.
A)
Packaged software
B)
Custom software
C)
Bespoke software
D)
Personalized software
E)
Tailored software
40)
Applications that are designed and developed exclusively for a specific
organization are known as ________.
A)
collaborative software
B)
custom software
C)
groupware
D)
ready-made application software
E)
packaged software
41)
Customers can purchase ________ software off the shelf to help them with their
personal documents and communications.
A)
personalized
B)
tailored
C)
packaged
D)
custom
E)
bespoke
42)
Packaged software is ________.
A)
used for standardized, repetitive tasks
B)
developed exclusively for a specific organization
C)
unique to a particular business or organization
D)
an application that needs to be maintained internally
when changes are required
E)
used to accommodate a customer's particular
preferences and expectations
43)
Which of the following software is very cost effective since the vendor that
builds the application spreads out the development costs by selling them to a
large number of users?
A)
packaged software
B)
bespoke software
C)
adapted software
D)
corrected software
E)
custom software
44)
Which type of software is best suited for tasks that are unique to a particular
business?
A)
collaborative
B)
custom
C)
groupware
D)
packaged
E)
ready-made application
45)
Which of the following is true regarding packaged software and custom software?
A)
Packaged software are applications that are designed
and developed exclusively for a specific organization.
B)
The development costs of custom software are much higher than for packaged
software because of the time, money, and resources that are required to design
and develop them.
C)
Packaged software is well suited for tasks that are unique to a particular
business.
D)
Custom software is cost effective since the vendor that builds the application
can spread out development costs through selling to a large number of users.
E)
Custom software is highly useful for standardized, repetitive tasks, such as
writing a report or preparing a presentation.
46)
The features and modules that an enterprise system comes with out of the box
are referred to as the ________.
A)
best-practices version
B)
reengineered version
C)
vanilla version
D)
customized version
E)
modified version
47)
________ is a systematic, structured improvement approach by all or part of an
organization whereby people critically examine, rethink, and redesign business
processes in order to achieve dramatic improvements in one or more performance
measures, such as quality, cycle time, or cost.
A)
Business process management
B)
Business activity monitoring
C)
Business service management
D)
Application performance management
E)
Application service management
48)
In the 1990s, business process management was known as ________.
A)
business systems management
B)
business process reengineering
C)
business service reengineering
D)
application performance management
E)
application service management
49)
After deciding to focus on business process management, the management of a
company has just finished developing a vision for the organization. This vision
specifies the company's business objectives. Typically, what should be the
management's next step?
A)
They should identify the ways in which information systems can be used to
improve the various business processes.
B)
They should design and implement a prototype of the new processes.
C)
They should manage the information technology to be used from a business
transaction perspective.
D)
They should identify the critical processes that are to be redesigned.
E)
They should understand and measure the existing processes as a baseline for
future improvements.
50)
After identifying the ways in which information systems can be used to improve
the processes, which of the following is the next step in business process
management?
A)
identifying the critical processes that are to be
redesigned
B)
understanding and measuring the existing processes as
a baseline for future improvements
C)
reducing costs and shortening the time it takes to get
products to market
D)
designing and implementing a prototype of the new
process
E)
developing a vision for the organization that
specifies the business objectives
51)
How is business process management similar to total quality management?
A)
They are intended to be cross-functional approaches to improve an organization.
B)
They focus on radical redesign and drastic improvement of processes.
C)
They focus on incremental change of processes.
D)
They focus on the activities typically occurring at the operational level of
the organization.
E)
They focus on providing capabilities for discovering "hidden"
predictive relationships while conducting a forecast.
52)
Applications that integrate business activities across departmental boundaries
are often referred to as ________ systems.
A)
manufacturing resource planning
B)
computer-integrated manufacturing
C)
capacity requirement planning
D)
enterprise resource planning
E)
materials requirement planning
53)
Which of the following is true regarding enterprise resource planning (ERP)?
A)
It stores data in different locations.
B)
It is an older version of materials requirement planning.
C)
It helped in developing the manufacturing resource planning package.
D)
Stand-alone applications are a developed version of ERP.
E)
It makes the process of sharing information between business activities easier.
54)
________ support the important internal activities of
the organization for producing their products and services.
A)
ERP focus components
B)
ERP core components
C)
ERP extended components
D)
ERP base components
E)
ERP covering components
55)
Financial management, operations management, human resource management, and
other important internal activities require the support of ________.
A)
ERP essence components
B)
ERP exterior components
C)
ERP core components
D)
ERP extended components
E)
ERP basis components
56)
________ support the primary external activities of
the organization for dealing with suppliers and customers.
A)
ERP components
B)
ERP aggrandized components
C)
ERP abridged components
D)
ERP extended components
E)
ERP core components
57)
Specifically, ERP extended components focus primarily on ________.
A)
customer relationship management and product lifecycle
management
B)
product lifecycle management and supply chain
management
C)
customer relationship management and human capital
management
D)
human capital management and supply chain management
E)
customer relationship management and supply chain
management
58)
Which of the following is true regarding the formula for success of an
enterprise system?
A)
Enterprise systems implementations should include personnel from different
departments.
B)
The success of an enterprise system depends directly on the support received
from middle-management.
C)
Enterprise systems are simple to understand and implement when compared to
stand-alone systems.
D)
Using outside consultants tends to complicate the implementation of an
enterprise system.
E)
Once enterprise systems go live, employees
experience an immediate growth in productivity.
59)
In service-oriented architecture, ________.
A)
business processes are broken down into individual
components or services
B)
business processes of an organization are standardized
C)
business processes of an organization are integrated
from individual components
D)
business processes are shared with channel partners
E)
business processes are modified to prevent illegal
activities within the process
60)
By breaking down business processes into individual services, organizations can
react more swiftly to changing business needs. To achieve these benefits,
services have to follow three main principles:
A)
reusability, interoperability, and reliability
B)
reusability, reliability, and componentization
C)
reusability, interoperability, and componentization
D)
reusability, interoperability, and accessability
E)
reusability, accessability,
and componentization
Chapter 8: Improving Supply Chains and Strengthening Customer
Relationships Using Enterprise Information Systems
1)
The term ________ is commonly used to refer to a collection of companies and
processes involved in moving a product from the suppliers of raw materials to
the customer.
A)
distribution resource planning
B)
supply chain
C)
procurement
D)
demand chain
E)
value network
2)
Which of the following statements about just-in-time strategies is true?
A)
Retailers using this strategy allow suppliers to maintain ownership of
inventory within their
warehouses or stores until items are scanned at
the point of sale.
B)
Companies using this strategy allow the suppliers to manage the manufacturer's
inventory levels based on preestablished service
levels.
C)
Companies using this strategy maintain large
inventories of supplies, parts, warehousing resources, and extra workers to
meet production contingencies.
D)
Companies using this strategy are trying to optimize their ordering quantities
such that parts or raw material arrive just when they are needed for
production.
E)
The manufacturer or retailer using this strategy shares real-time sales data
with their suppliers, who maintain inventory levels based on preestablished agreements.
3)
Altrix Corp., an Indonesian firm, recently faced an
unanticipated decline in the demand for its product. This dented the company's
financial strength not only through loss of sales, but also because it ended up
with a substantial inventory of raw materials that the company wasn't able to
use. As a result, Altrix has been rethinking its
approach to inventory management. Some of its board members are suggesting that
they use the just-in-time (JIT) system to avoid such situations in the future.
Which of the following, if true, could undermine the argument in favor of JIT?
A)
Some of the raw materials Altrix requires are
perishable in nature.
B)
Altrix Corp. has already integrated backward by
purchasing supplies located in different parts of Indonesia.
C)
Altrix Corp. recently entered into a 3-year contract
with a leading warehousing firm to use their storage space on a "need
be" basis.
D)
Altrix Corp. is bidding for a huge government
contract that could give its sales some stability.
E)
Labor problems are a critical issue in this country.
4)
________ is a business model in which the suppliers to a manufacturer manage
the manufacturer's
inventory
levels based on preestablished service levels.
A)
Just-in-case manufacturing
B)
Scan-based trading
C)
Vendor-managed inventory
D)
Lean manufacturing
E)
Just-in-time
5)
Which of the following statements about vendor-management inventory (VMI) is
true?
A)
To make VMI possible, the manufacturer must maintain large inventories of
supplies, parts, warehousing resources, and extra workers to meet production
contingencies.
B)
Manufacturers using VMI business model, manage the inventories themselves and
send out requests for additional items to the vendors as needed.
C)
Companies using this strategy are trying to optimize their ordering quantities
such that parts or
raw
material arrive just when they are needed for production.
D)
To make VMI possible, the manufacturer allows the supplier to monitor stock
levels and ongoing sales data.
E)
Retailers using this strategy allow suppliers to maintain ownership of
inventory within their
warehouses
or stores until items are scanned at the point of sale.
6)
One major problem affecting supply chains are ripple effects referred to as the
________.
A)
backflush effect
B)
multiplier effect
C)
bullwhip effect
D)
incremental effect
E)
stockwhip effect
7)
Computer maker, Dell, realized the problems with keeping large inventories,
especially because of the fast rate of obsolescence of electronics components.
Dell now keeps only about two hours of inventory in its factories. The company
is most likely using a ________.
A)
scan-based trading system
B)
customer-managed inventory system
C)
just-in-time inventory management system
D)
vendor-managed inventory system
E)
just-in-case inventory management system
8)
MaxSteel Inc., has been supplying steel to a well known car manufacturer, Agis
Corp., for the past 3 years. Concerned employees at Max can directly access Agis Corp.'s inventory and sales information via electronic
data interchange.This allows MaxSteel
to monitor Agis Corp.'s inventory levels on a
real-time basis. The system has worked well for both companies so far and there
has never been any delay in the supply of steel. Which of the following, if
true, would most strengthen Agis' supply chain
strategy?
A)
Agis Corp.'s management decides to take strong
measures for increasing their safety stock of all raw materials.
B)
Agis Corp., is taking measures to add wholesalers and
retailers into their supply chain.
C)
Agis Corp., has a strong desire to purchase MaxSteel in order to reduce dependency.
D)
Agis Corp., is taking measures to directly contact
the consumers by removing wholesalers and retailers from their supply chain.
E)
Agis Corp., understands that the information shared
with MaxSteel will not be shared outside their
organization.
9)
Fen-phen was an anti-obesity medication that
consisted of two drugs: fenfluramine and phentermine.
Fenfluramine was initially marketed by American Home
Products, but was shown to cause potentially fatal pulmonary hypertension and
heart valve problems. This eventually led to the withdrawal of the drug and
legal damages of over $13 billion. This is an example of ________.
A)
a product recall
B)
lean manufacturing
C)
production control
D)
the bullwhip effect
E)
a green business
10)
La Belle Inc. introduced a new line of accessories for teenaged girls last
season. Following its immense popularity with the targeted group, the company
anticipated high sales this season. It ordered raw materials accordingly, and
even ensured that they had sufficient inventory to meet excess demand, if any.
However, the success of the new line turned out to be a fad, as the teens soon
turned to other products offered by competing brands, and La Belle's sales
declined. This caused a huge discrepancy in the amount of raw materials they
needed and the amount of inventory they had piled up in anticipation of good
sales. This is an example of ________.
A)
the multiplier effect
B)
hindsight bias
C)
product recall
D)
the bullwhip effect
E)
safety stock planning
11)
Which of the following is the main objective of information systems that focus
on improving supply
chains?
A)
discouraging vendor-managed inventory systems
B)
accelerating product development and innovation
C)
encouraging sustainable production processes
D)
decentralizing the organizations
E)
encouraging the bullwhip effect
12)
Which of the following is the key use of distribution planning module of supply
chain management?
A)
to ensure that the materials required for production are available when needed
B)
to forecast and plan anticipated demand for products
C)
to optimize the allocation of available supply to meet demand
D)
to support production processes taking into account capacity and material
constraints
E)
to support receiving, storing, and picking of goods in a warehouse
13) The key use of order promising module of
supply chain management is to ________.
A)
work with partners across the supply network to improve accuracy of demand
forecasts, reduce
inventory
buffers, and improve customer service
B)
monitor key performance indicators to assess performance across the supply
chain
C)
manage logistics between company locations or from company to customers, taking
into account
transportation
modes and constraints
D)
assign optimal safety stock and target stock levels in all inventories in the
supply network
E)
provide answers to customer relationship management queries regarding product
availability, costs, and delivery times
14) The key use of manufacturing execution module
of supply chain management is to ________.
A)
forecast and plan anticipated demand for products
B)
support production processes taking into account capacity and material
constraints
C)
ensure that the materials required for production are available where needed,
when needed
D)
assign optimal safety stock and target stock levels in all inventories in the
supply network
E)
support receiving, storing, and picking of goods in a warehouse
15)
________ involves the development of various resource plans to support the
efficient and effective production of goods and services.
A)
Supply chain visibility
B)
Supply chain analytics
C)
Supply chain execution
D)
Supply chain network
E)
Supply chain planning
16)
Supply chain planning begins with ________.
A)
product demand planning and forecasting
B)
distribution planning
C)
production scheduling
D)
inventory planning
E)
safety stock planning
17)
Demand planning and forecasting leads to the development of the overall
________.
A)
sourcing plan
B)
transportation schedule
C)
production plan
D)
expected demand
E)
safety stock plan
18)
________ focuses on delivering products or services to consumers as well as
warehousing, delivering, invoicing, and payment collection.
A)
Product demand planning
B)
Production planning
C)
Distribution planning
D)
Safety stock planning
E)
Inventory planning
19)
Distribution planning leads to the development of the overall ________.
A)
production plan
B)
safety stock plan
C)
demand forecast
D)
transportation schedule
E)
sourcing plan
20)
Production scheduling ________.
A)
focuses on the coordination of all activities needed to create the product or
service
B)
focuses on delivering products or services to consumers as well as warehousing
C)
leads to the development of a sourcing plan
D)
focuses on the development of inventory estimates
E)
focuses on delivering products or services to consumers as well as invoicing
and payment collection
21)
Using analytical tools to optimally utilize labor, materials, and equipment is
a part of the ________ step of supply chain planning.
A)
demand forecasting
B)
production scheduling
C)
distribution planning
D)
inventory planning
E)
transportation scheduling
22)
Inventory and safety stock planning ________.
A)
leads to the development of the overall demand forecast
B)
focuses on the coordination of all activities needed to create the product or
service
C)
focuses on the development of inventory estimates
D)
focuses on delivering products or services to consumers as well as warehousing
E)
leads to the development of a transportation schedule
23)
Inventory and safety stock planning leads to the development of a(n) ________.
A)
outsourcing plan
B)
production plan
C)
transportation schedule
D)
demand forecast
E)
sourcing plan
24)
Supply chain execution ________.
A)
involves the development of a sourcing plan
B)
refers to the use of key performance indicators to monitor production
C)
involves the management of information flow
D)
refers to the ability to track products as they move through the supply chain
E)
involves the development of demand forecast
25)
Which of the following statements is true about product flow, a key element of
supply chain?
A)
It refers to the ability to track products as they move through the supply
chain.
B)
It refers to the movement of information along the supply chain, such as order
processing and delivery status updates.
C)
It refers to the movement of goods from the supplier to production, from
production to distribution, and from distribution to the consumer.
D)
It tracks a one-way flow of products from producers to consumers but cannot
process returns or customer refunds.
E)
It refers primarily to the movement of financial assets throughout the supply
chain.
26)
Which of the following statements is true about information flow, a key element
of supply chain
execution?
A)
A key element of this aspect of supply chain execution is to foresee external
events.
B)
Information can only flow up the supply chain.
C)
It refers to the use of key performance indicators to monitor performance of
the entire supply chain.
D)
The key element to the information flow is the complete removal of paper
documents.
E)
It refers primarily to the movement of financial assets throughout the supply
chain.
27)
Which of the following key elements of a supply chain includes information
related to payment schedules, consignment, and ownership of products and
materials?
A)
financial flow
B)
personnel flow
C)
information flow
D)
product flow
E)
material flow
28)
________ refers not only to the ability to track products as they move through
the supply chain but also to foresee external events.
A)
Supply chain visibility
B)
Demand planning and forecasting
C)
Supply chain analytics
D)
Supply network collaboration
E)
Supply chain efficiency
29)
________ refers to the use of key performance indicators to monitor performance
of the entire supply chain, including sourcing, planning, production, and
distribution.
A)
Demand forecasting
B)
Supply network collaboration
C)
Supply chain visibility
D)
Supply chain efficiency
E)
Supply chain analytics
30)
________ is the extent to which a company's supply chain is focusing on
minimizing procurement, production, and transportation costs, sometimes by
sacrificing excellent customer service.
A)
Supply chain analytics
B)
Supply chain effectiveness
C)
Supply network collaboration
D)
Supply chain efficiency
E)
Supply chain visibility
31)
________ is the extent to which a company's supply chain is focusing on
maximizing customer service regardless of procurement, production, and
transportation costs.
A)
Supply chain visibility
B)
Supply chain effectiveness
C)
Supply chain analytics
D)
Supply chain efficiency
E)
Supply network collaboration
32)
Which of the following is an example of supply chain efficiency?
A)
Federal Express focuses on providing superior service.
B)
Caterpillar has high spare parts availability.
C)
Dr. Pepper introduces a new flavor of soft drink.
D)
Rolex positions itself as a prestige brand.
E)
Apple sources its raw materials in a way to keep costs low.
33)
________ is a data presentation standard first specified by the World Wide Web
Consortium, an international consortium of companies whose purpose is to
develop open standards for the Web.
A)
Extensible Markup Language
B)
Perl
C)
MySQL
D)
Active Server Pages
E)
Unified Modeling Language
34)
________ allow(s) designers of Web documents to create their own customized
tags, enabling the definition, transmission, validation, and interpretation of
data between applications and between organizations.
A)
MySQL
B)
Active Server Pages
C)
Extensible Markup Language
D)
Perl
E)
Unified Modeling Language
35)
Which of the following statements is true about XML?
A)
XML is standardized.
B)
XML specifies a particular formatting.
C)
XML cannot be tailored to share any data across applications over the Web.
D)
XML tags are used to supply interactive content to a Web page.
E)
XML instructs systems as to how information should be interpreted and used.
36)
________ is an XML-based specification for publishing financial information.
A)
Extensible Rights Markup Language
B)
Extensible Application Markup Language
C)
Extensible Access Control Markup Language
D)
Extensible Business Reporting Language
E)
Enterprise Mashup Markup Language
37)
________ includes tags for data such as annual and quarterly reports,
Securities and Exchange Commission filings, general ledger information, and net
revenue and accounting schedules.
A)
Extensible Application Markup Language
B)
Extensible Business Reporting Language
C)
Extensible Access Control Markup Language
D)
Enterprise Mashup Markup Language
E)
Extensible Rights Markup Language
38)
Lee's department store uses the every day low prices
strategy. This strategy hinges upon the store's ability to obtain consumer
goods at the cheapest possible price and pass these savings on to consumers.
Lee's store also developed its own distribution network for supplying its
retail outlets with consumer goods. This distribution network allowed them to
cut out external suppliers and middlemen, further driving down business costs.
This implies that the competitive strategy used by this store would most likely
focus on ________.
A)
supply chain efficiency
B)
supply chain visibility
C)
supply chain effectiveness
D)
operational CRM
E)
analytical CRM
39)
Comptel, a world leader in computer hardware,
differentiates itself from its customers by providing excellent after-sales
service. This implies that the competitive strategy used by Comptel
would most likely focus on ________.
A)
supply chain analytics
B)
supply chain visibility
C)
supply chain effectiveness
D)
supply network collaboration
E)
supply chain efficiency
40)
________ uses the electromagnetic energy to transmit information between a
reader (transceiver) and a processing device.
A)
Radio frequency identification
B)
High capacity color barcode
C)
Interferometric modulator display
D)
Photonic computing
E)
Electronic product code
41)
________ can be used just about anywhere a unique identification system might
be needed, such as on clothing, pets, cars, keys, missiles, or manufactured parts.
A)
HTML tags
B)
RFID tags
C)
Spintronics
D)
XML tags
E)
High capacity color barcode
42)
Which of the following statements is true about RFID systems?
A)
RFID scanning can be done at greater distances than bar code scanning.
B)
RFID information is readable depending on the entity's position.
C)
RFID tags contain less information than bar codes.
D)
All RFID tags are small and relatively inexpensive.
E)
RFID requires time-consuming hand scanning.
43)
Which of the following statements about an RFID passive tag is true?
A)
They are small and inexpensive.
B)
They have a range up to 300 feet or more.
C)
They cost more than active tags.
D)
They have an internal battery source.
E)
They typically cost about $10.
44)
Which of the following statements about an RFID active tag is true?
A)
They are inexpensive, with the starting price being 10 cents.
B)
They have a range up to 40 feet.
C)
They are small compared to passive tags.
D)
They have an internal battery source.
E)
They are less expensive as compared to passive tags.
45)
Which of the following is a main objective of customer relationship management
applications focusing on downstream information flows?
A)
to track global spend by supplier
B)
to encourage bullwhip effect
C)
to develop demand forecasts
D)
to portray a positive corporate image
E)
to collaborate demand and production planning
46)
Which of the following portrays the individualized service benefit of a CRM
system?
A)
Learning how each customer defines product and service quality so that customized
product, pricing, and services can be designed or developed collaboratively.
B)
Web-based interfaces providing product information, sales status, support
information, issue tracking, and so on.
C)
Integrating all information for all points of contact with the customers, so
that all who interact with customers have the same view and understand current
issues.
D)
Integrated information removing information handoffs, which speeds both sales
and support processes.
E)
Improved record keeping and efficient methods of capturing customer complaints
helping to identify and solve problems faster.
47)
Which of the following rightly explains improved product development on using a
CRM system?
A)
Learning how each customer defines product and service quality so that
customized product, pricing, and services can be designed or developed
collaboratively.
B)
Web-based interfaces that provide product information, sales status, support
information, issue tracking, and so on.
C)
Integrated information that removes information handoffs, speeding both sales
and support processes.
D)
Improved record keeping and efficient methods of capturing customer complaints
that assist in identifying problems faster.
E)
Tracking customer behavior over time that helps to identify future
opportunities for product and service offerings.
48)
Which of the following examples portray the 24/7/365 operation of a CRM system?
A)
Web-based interfaces that provide product information, sales status, support
information, issue
tracking,
and so on.
B)
Improved record keeping and efficient methods of capturing customer complaints
that assist in
identifying
problems faster.
C)
Tracking customer behavior over time that helps to identify future
opportunities for product and
service
offerings.
D)
Integrated information that removes information handoffs, speeding both sales
and support
processes.
E)
Learning how each customer defines product and service quality so that
customized product,
pricing,
and services can be designed or developed collaboratively.
49)
Which of the following rightly explains improved planning on using a CRM
system?
A)
Improved record keeping and efficient methods of capturing customer complaints
that assist in identifying problems faster.
B)
Learning how each customer defines product and service quality so that
customized product, pricing, and services can be designed or developed
collaboratively.
C)
Providing mechanisms for managing and scheduling sales follow-ups to assess
satisfaction, repurchase probabilities, time frames, and frequencies.
D)
Tracking customer behavior over time that helps to identify future
opportunities for product and
service
offerings.
E)
Integrated information that removes information handoffs, speeding both sales
and support
processes.
50)
________ includes the systems used to enable customer interaction and service.
A)
Operational CRM
B)
Integrated CRM
C)
Collaborative CRM
D)
Data warehouse
E)
Analytical CRM
51)
________ help create the mass e-mail marketing campaigns wherein each consumer
receives an individualized e-mail based on their prior purchase history.
A)
Data warehouses
B)
Operational CRM systems
C)
Analytical CRM systems
D)
Integrated CRM systems
E)
Collaborative CRM systems
52)
Which of the following is a component of the operational CRM system?
A)
sales force automation
B)
data warehouses
C)
ERP systems
D)
data mining and visualization
E)
business intelligence
53)
Which of the following is a component of the analytical CRM system?
A)
enterprise marketing management
B)
sales force automation
C)
technologies to facilitate communication
D)
data mining and visualization
E)
customer service and support
54)
Which of the following is a component of the collaborative CRM system?
A)
sales force automation
B)
data mining and visualization
C)
enterprise resource planning systems
D)
enterprise marketing management
E)
technologies to facilitate communication
55)
________ is the first component of an operational customer relationship
management that supports a broad range of business processes, including account
and contact management, territory management, and order processing and
tracking.
A)
Enterprise marketing management
B)
Sales force automation
C)
Data warehouse
D)
Execution management
E)
Customer service and support
56)
Which of the following best explains improved morale of sales personnel due to
sales force management systems?
A)
Customer contact information being recorded using e-forms that automatically
provide known customer data.
B)
Common systems ensuring that sales personnel follow common processes and
procedures.
C)
Improved training and less "busywork"allowing
a greater focus on selling and revenue generation.
D)
Sharing of all sales-related information facilitating successful team selling.
E)
E-forms ensuring that customer data is automatically entered.
57)
________ refers to systems that automate complaints, product returns, and
information requests, among others.
A)
Data warehouse
B)
Enterprise marketing management
C)
Customer service and support
D)
Execution management
E)
Sales force automation
58)
Which of the following advantages accruing to sales personnel can be attributed
to sales force management?
A)
better planning
B)
better sales force tracking
C)
better forecasts
D)
improved teamwork
E)
improved scheduling
59)
Which of the following best explains improved information for sales managers on
account of sales force management systems?
A)
sales performance data automatically tabulated and presented in
easy-to-understand tables, charts, and graphs
B)
streamlined selling processes and improved communications that allow sales
managers to focus more on nonselling activities
C)
common systems ensuring that sales managers follow common processes and
procedures
D)
improved training and less "busywork"allows
a greater focus on selling and revenue generation
E)
sharing of all sales-related information facilitates successful team selling
and the sharing of best practices
60)
________ refers to using multiple communication channels to support the
communication preferences of users, such as the Web, the company's Facebook
page, industry blogs, telephone and so on.
A)
Business intelligence
B)
Customer interaction center
C)
Enterprise marketing management
D)
Execution management
E)
Sales force automation
61)
________ tools help a company in the execution of the CRM strategy by improving
the management of promotional campaigns.
A)
Business intelligence
B)
Sales force automation
C)
Enterprise marketing management
D)
Customer interaction center
E)
Execution management
62)
________ focuses on studying customer behavior and perceptions in order to
provide the business intelligence necessary to identify new opportunities and
to provide superior customer service.
A)
Analytical CRM
B)
Sales force automation
C)
Operational CRM
D)
Collaborative CRM
E)
Integrated CRM
63)
Organizations that effectively utilize ________ can more easily customize
marketing campaigns from the segment level to even the individual customer.
A)
operational CRM
B)
integrated CRM
C)
analytical CRM
D)
collaborative CRM
E)
sales force automation
64)
Which of the following business processes can be enhanced by the analytical CRM
system?
A)
sales forecasting and performance analyses
B)
account and contact management
C)
price, quality, and satisfaction analysis of competitors
D)
customer history and preferences management
E)
order processing and tracking
65)
________ refers to systems for providing effective and efficient communication
with the customer from the entire organization.
A)
Analytical CRM
B)
Sales force automation
C)
Collaborative CRM
D)
Operational CRM
E)
Business intelligence
66)
________ facilitate the sharing of information across the various departments
of an organization in order to increase customer satisfaction and loyalty.
A)
Collaborative CRM systems
B)
Data warehousing systems
C)
Operational CRM systems
D)
Analytical CRM systems
E)
Data mining systems
Chapter
9: Developing and Acquiring Information Systems
1)
Which of the following statements best describes the productivity paradox for
technology investment?
A)
The productivity of any technology is directly proportional to the investment
in that technology.
B)
While it is easy to quantify the costs associated with developing an
information system, it is often difficult to quantify tangible productivity
gains from its use.
C)
As investment in technology increases, productivity decreases steadily.
D)
While it is easy to identify and quantify the intangible benefits of an
information system, it is not easy to quantify the tangible benefits.
E)
The productivity of an information system is in no way related to the
investment in the technology.
2)
System efficiency is the extent to which a system ________.
A)
allows firms to reach their operational targets
B)
allows people to plan tasks that are achievable
C)
enables people to accomplish goals or tasks well
D)
enables people to do things faster or at lower cost
E)
allows employees to reduce the risks associated with tasks
3)
Which of the following is true for system effectiveness?
A)
It is the extent to which a system enables the firm to accomplish goals well.
B)
It is the extent to which a system allows a firm to plan its tasks.
C)
It is the extent to which a system enables the firm to do things faster, at
lower cost.
D)
It is the extent to which a system allows a firm to cut operational costs.
E)
It is the extent to which a system enables people to accomplish tasks with
relatively little time and effort.
4)
Which of the following scenarios demonstrates system efficiency?
A)
Barker's new information system allowed the company to reach its monthly
targets.
B)
Barker's was able to easily reach its sales goals through the use of its
information system.
C)
Barker's new information system allowed the company to set achievable targets.
D)
Barker's new information system helped employees to achieve their individual
goals alongside the company's goals.
E)
The new information system at Barker's helped employees work faster, with less
effort.
5)
BelAir Tech replaced its outdated information system
with a newer version. As a result, its employees reported a significant
increase in work speed. Which of the following is most similar to BelAir's situation?
A)
Barker's new information system allowed the company to reach its monthly sales
target easily.
B)
Twining Co. targeted a 5 percent increase in customer acquisition and achieved
this with the new information system.
C)
Employees at Niven Ltd felt that customer
satisfaction increased after the new information system was implemented.
D)
Castle's new information system helped employees to achieve their individual
goals alongside the company's goals.
E)
At Sterling Inc, the average number of application
forms processed in an hour rose from 4 to 6 as a result of the new system.
6)
B&Z Inc. implemented a new information system two months ago but there have
been no concrete increases in productivity as a result of the system. A similar
system has been in place at the company headquarters for the past two years,
and this system has resulted in significant, quantifiable benefits. Which of
the following reasons is the most likely explanation for the lack of results?
A)
The benefits of the new information system are difficult to pinpoint because
the firm is considering the wrong indicators.
B)
The new system is being used to redistribute market share rather than make the
whole market bigger.
C)
It can take years from the first implementation of this new system before the
magnitude of benefits is felt by the organization.
D)
The benefits of the new information system are difficult to pinpoint because
the firm is not familiar with the working of the system.
E)
The new system may be beneficial for individual firms but not for a particular
industry or the economy as a whole.
7)
Business case arguments based on ________ focus on beliefs about organizational
strategy, competitive advantage, industry forces, customer perceptions, market
share, and so on.
A)
faith
B)
fear
C)
facts
D)
fiction
E)
fallacy
8)
Business case arguments based on fear are based on ________.
A)
the belief that implementing the new information system can have significant
positive consequences for the firm
B)
beliefs about organizational strategy, competitive advantage, industry forces,
customer perceptions, market share, and so on
C)
data, quantitative analysis, and/or indisputable factors
D)
the notion that if the system is not implemented, the firm will lose out to the
competition or go out of business
E)
the results of a qualitative analysis of employee responses to the new
information system
9)
Business case arguments based on data, quantitative analysis, and/or
indisputable factors are known as arguments based on ________.
A)
fads
B)
faith
C)
facts
D)
fear
E)
fiction
10)
Which of the following is an example of a business case argument based on fear?
A)
If we do not implement this system, our competitors could gain a significant
advantage over us.
B)
This system has the potential to reduce required effort by 40 percent.
C)
Using this system will help our employees serve customers more efficiently.
D)
The system can help us meet both individual as well as organizational goals.
E)
The new system is user-friendly and can be implemented almost immediately.
11)
The total cost of ownership of a system refers to ________.
A)
all non-recurring costs associated with a system
B)
all costs associated with ongoing use and maintenance of a system
C)
the total cost of acquisition of a particular system
D)
the total cost of acquisition and all costs associated with use and maintenance
of a system
E)
only the recurring costs associated with a system
12)
Which of the following is an example of a recurring cost associated with an
information system?
A)
installation charges
B)
purchase of office space
C)
employee salaries
D)
technology purchases
E)
cost of system acquisition
13)
Which of the following is an example of an intangible cost for a system?
A)
cost of losing customers
B)
employee salaries
C)
cost of installation and maintenance
D)
cost of employee recruitment and retention
E)
customer support costs
14)
BelAir Tech is conducting a cost-benefit analysis for
its IS department. In this, the salary of an employee
is an example of a(n) ________.
A)
intangible and tangible cost
B)
tangible and recurring cost
C)
intangible and recurring cost
D)
tangible and non-recurring cost
E)
recurring and non-recurring cost
15)
Which of the following is true for tangible costs?
A)
They are only recurring costs.
B)
They are always non-recurring costs.
C)
They are relatively easy to quantify.
D)
They are the same as intangible benefits.
E)
They are difficult to qualify.
16)
BelAir Tech implements a new information system and
sees a 5 percent increase in monthly sales after implementation. This is a(n)
________ of the system.
A)
intangible benefit
B)
tangible cost
C)
tangible benefit
D)
recurring cost
E)
non-recurring cost
17)
"Increased customer reach of the new Web-based system will result in at
least a modest increase in sales." This statement represents ________ for
the company.
A)
a recurring cost
B)
an intangible cost
C)
a tangible benefit
D)
a non-recurring cost
E)
an intangible benefit
18)
Which of the following is an example of an intangible benefit for a firm?
A)
lower transport and operational costs
B)
a significant increase in sales
C)
a reduction in operational errors
D)
cost reductions as compared to previous data
E)
improved customer perceptions of the firm
19)
A break-even analysis ________.
A)
identifies at what point tangible benefits equal tangible costs
B)
analyzes the relevant cash flow streams associated with the system at the
organization's discount rate
C)
refers to the discounted sum, or present value, or a stream of costs associated
with a project or proposal
D)
attempts to summarize the overall value for money of a project or proposal
E)
is the rate of return used by an organization to compute the present value of
future cash flows
20)
A method for deciding among different IS investments or when considering
alternative designs for a given system is ________.
A)
transactional analysis
B)
weighted multicriteria analysis
C)
finite element analysis
D)
independent component analysis
E)
link quality analysis
21)
________ are alternative measures of outcomes that can help clarify what the
impact of a change will be for a firm.
A)
Proxy variables
B)
Pseudocodes
C)
Patches
D)
Prototypes
E)
Protocols
22)
Which of the following is the main advantage of customizable software over
off-the-shelf software?
A)
cost effectiveness
B)
ease of procurement
C)
problem specificity
D)
lower risks
E)
user-friendliness
23)
The first phase of the systems development life cycle is ________.
A)
systems design
B)
systems implementation
C)
systems analysis
D)
systems planning and selection
E)
systems operation
24)
During the first phase of the systems development life cycle, organizations
________.
A)
transform the system design into a working information system
B)
identify, plan, and select a development project from all possible projects
that could be performed
C)
gain a thorough understanding of an organization's current way of doing things
in the area for which the new information system will be constructed
D)
elaborate on the details of the chosen approach and design the system
E)
decommission the current way of doing things and install the new system in the
organization
25)
The final phase of the systems development life cycle is ________.
A)
systems design
B)
systems implementation
C)
systems analysis
D)
systems maintenance
E)
systems operation
26)
Requirements collection takes place during the ________ phase of the systems
development life cycle.
A)
systems design
B)
systems implementation
C)
systems analysis
D)
systems maintenance
E)
systems operation
27)
________ is the process of gathering and organizing information from users,
managers, customers, business processes, and documents to understand how a
proposed information system should function.
A)
Data modeling
B)
Requirements collection
C)
Beta testing
D)
End-user development
E)
External acquisition
28)
________ is a group meeting-based process for requirements collection.
A)
Joint application design
B)
Computer-aided design
C)
Human-computer interface
D)
Reverse engineering
E)
Total ownership
29)
________ represent(s) the movement of data through an organization or within an
information system.
A)
Data entities
B)
Data flux
C)
Data attributes
D)
Data flows
E)
Data modeling
30)
________ represents the way in which data are transformed.
A)
Data parallelism
B)
Processing logic
C)
Data streaming
D)
Process control
E)
Transaction processing
31)
Processing logic is often expressed in ________, which is independent of the
actual programming language being used.
A)
semantics encoding
B)
prefix code
C)
source code
D)
semiotics
E)
pseudocode
32)
After systems analysis, the next phase in the systems development life cycle is
________.
A)
systems implementation
B)
systems operation
C)
systems planning
D)
systems maintenance
E)
systems design
33)
In an information system, a ________ is the point of contact between a system
and users.
A)
biointerface
B)
network interface
C)
point-to-point link
D)
human–computer interface
E)
data link
34)
A ________ is a business document containing some predefined data, often
including some areas where additional data can be filled in.
A)
form
B)
script
C)
sheet
D)
report
E)
module
35)
A ________ is a business document containing only predefined data for online
viewing or printing.
A)
form
B)
script
C)
sheet
D)
report
E)
module
36)
The processing and logic operations of an information system refer(s) to
________.
A)
the procedures for entering data into a system
B)
the transfer of data across system components
C)
the procedures that transform raw data inputs into new or modified information
D)
the multiple points of contact between a system and users
E)
the process of transforming the system design into a working computer system
37)
Software programming and testing takes place during the ________ stage of the
systems development process.
A)
systems planning
B)
systems analysis
C)
systems maintenance
D)
systems implementation
E)
systems design
38)
Which of the following best describes developmental testing?
A)
testing the correctness of individual modules and the integration of multiple
modules
B)
testing the system to see if it meets design requirements
C)
testing of the capabilities of the system in the user environment with actual
data
D)
testing the system as a whole to see if it performs adequately
E)
testing the system in an experimental context using sample data
39)
________ testing is testing of the overall system to see whether it meets
design requirements.
A)
Developmental
B)
Beta
C)
Evolutionary
D)
Alpha
E)
Comparative
40)
Jason has just made some changes to the information system at BelAir Tech and wants to check if the system is working
correctly. He wants to conduct a beta test of the system. Which of the
following should he do to achieve this?
A)
He should ask other programmers to check the modules he changed.
B)
He should check to see if the changed components are integrated well into the
system.
C)
He should ask users of the system to test it using actual data.
D)
He should ask the software tester to test if the changed system meets design
requirements.
E)
He should test the changed modules for correctness.
41)
________ testing involves testing of the capabilities of the system in the user
environment with actual data.
A)
Developmental
B)
Beta
C)
Evolutionary
D)
Alpha
E)
Comparative
42)
Developmental testing of an information system is performed by ________.
A)
software testers
B)
actual users
C)
programmers
D)
systems analysts
E)
project managers
43)
________ testing is performed by actual users of the system.
A)
Developmental
B)
Beta
C)
Evolutionary
D)
Alpha
E)
Comparative
44)
Which of the following can be considered beta testing?
A)
A programmer at Linus Systems checks the integration of multiple modules of an
information system.
B)
Software testers compare the finished system against user requirements to see
if it satisfies all necessary criteria.
C)
Taro Inc. checks the correctness of the modules of its new information system.
D)
System users at URP feed data into a new information system to test its
capability.
E)
MNP Inc. checks the system to ensure that it meets all the necessary design
requirements.
45)
Programming is the process of ________.
A)
transforming the system design into a working computer system
B)
testing the correctness of individual modules of a system
C)
testing the integration of multiple modules of a system
D)
transforming raw data inputs into new or modified information
E)
gathering and organizing information from users and managers
46)
________ is the process of decommissioning the current way of doing things and
installing the new system in the organization.
A)
Reverse engineering
B)
System programming
C)
Adaptive maintenance
D)
Patch management
E)
System conversion
47)
Which of the following is true for patch management?
A)
It helps in testing the correctness of individual modules and the integration
of multiple modules of a system.
B)
It helps in the process of transforming the system design into a working computer
system.
C)
It helps in performing corrective or preventive maintenance for a system.
D)
It helps in decommissioning the current system and installing the new system in
the organization.
E)
It helps to develop system documentation that details the inner workings of the
system to ease future maintenance.
48)
________ use the Internet to check the software vendor's Web site for available
fixes for problems. The application downloads and installs these in order to
fix software flaws.
A)
Alpha testing systems
B)
Proxy variables
C)
Benchmarking systems
D)
Patch management systems
E)
Workarounds
49)
The process of making changes to an information system to repair flaws in
design, coding, or implementation is known as ________.
A)
adaptive maintenance
B)
perfective maintenance
C)
preventive maintenance
D)
corrective maintenance
E)
predictive maintenance
50)
The process of making changes to an information system to evolve its
functionality, to accommodate changing business needs, or to migrate it to a
different operating environment is known as ________.
A)
adaptive maintenance
B)
perfective maintenance
C)
preventive maintenance
D)
corrective maintenance
E)
predictive maintenance
51)
Which of the following types of system maintenance involves making enhancements
to improve processing performance or interface usability?
A)
adaptive maintenance
B)
perfective maintenance
C)
preventive maintenance
D)
corrective maintenance
E)
predictive maintenance
52)
Preventive maintenance of a system involves ________.
A)
making changes to an information system to repair flaws in the design
B)
making enhancements to improve processing performance or interface usability
C)
making changes to a system to reduce the chance of future system failure
D)
adding desired but not necessarily required system features
E)
making changes to an information system to accommodate changing business needs
53)
BelAir Tech has a five-member team in charge of the
development and maintenance of its information systems. An information system
is in place, and the team performs routine maintenance to keep it running
smoothly. Which of the following scenarios is an example of perfective
maintenance?
A)
Jason notices a faulty component in the system and modifies the component.
B)
Justin works on the system to make the user interface more user-friendly.
C)
Sara knows that the company is migrating to a different operating environment
in the next month, and makes changes to the system.
D)
Dylan predicts that the company's old system may fail under new demands, and
takes steps to avert this.
E)
Kiera detects a fault in the coding, which is
hampering system performance, and rectifies it.
54)
BelAir Tech has a five-member team in charge of
development and maintenance of its information systems. An information system
is in place, and the team performs routine maintenance to keep it running
smoothly. Which of the following scenarios is an example of adaptive
maintenance?
A)
Jason notices a faulty component in the system and modifies the component.
B)
Justin works on the system to make the user interface more user-friendly.
C)
Sara knows that the company is migrating to a new operating environment in the
next month, and makes the appropriate changes to the system.
D)
Dylan predicts that the company's old system may fail under new demands, and
takes steps to avert this.
E)
Kiera detects a fault in the coding, which is
hampering system performance, and rectifies it.
55)
Which of the following is true for prototyping?
A)
It is a part of the fourth stage of the systems development life cycle.
B)
It is synonymous with adaptive maintenance of a system.
C)
It does not consider user requirements for the system.
D)
It uses a trial-and-error approach for discovering how a system should operate.
E)
It is also known as end-user development.
56)
BelAir Tech needs a new information system to manage
increasing customer orders and changing demands. The company's five-member IS
team is competent and capable of developing a new system, but BelAir decides against developing a system in-house. Which
of the following, if true, would most weaken BelAir's
decision?
A)
The company's preferred vendor is willing to provide a basic information system
at a reduced rate.
B)
The company's IS team is short-staffed and is finding it difficult to cope with
increased work.
C)
The costs of outsourcing systems development are greater than those of adapting
an off-the-shelf system.
D)
The company's IS department has the qualifications to develop the new system.
E)
The company's requirements for the new system are very specialized.
57)
Which of the following steps takes place in an organization during both
in-house systems development as well as external acquisition?
A)
vendor selection
B)
systems selection
C)
systems analysis
D)
development of an RFP
E)
proposal evaluation
58)
BelAir has decided to buy an information system from
an external vendor. The company has made a list of its requirements and asked
prospective vendors to submit proposals for the system. Which of the following
is the next step in the company's external acquisition process?
A)
systems planning
B)
systems analysis
C)
vendor selection
D)
proposal evaluation
E)
system installation
59)
Which of the following statements is true for a request for proposal?
A)
It is a form sent by vendors to potential customers.
B)
It requests vendors to provide a complete list of all their products.
C)
It invites customers to bid for a product offered by a vendor.
D)
It is a summary of the vendor's offerings to a client.
E)
It is a list of user requirements sent to prospective vendors.
60)
________ is the use of standardized performance tests to facilitate comparison
between systems.
A)
Beta testing
B)
Systems benchmarking
C)
Data modeling
D)
Systems prototyping
E)
Alpha testing
61)
BelAir has submitted a request for proposal to a
number of vendors. It must now evaluate the proposals it has received. Which of
the following methods can it use to compare the different systems?
A)
systems benchmarking
B)
alpha testing
C)
data modeling
D)
beta testing
E)
prototyping
62)
________ licenses are activated as soon as the packaging of the software has
been removed.
A)
Click-wrap
B)
Shareware
C)
Shrink-wrap
D)
Volume
E)
Implied
63)
A(n) ________ license refers to a license primarily used for downloaded
software that requires computer users to choose "I accept"before
installing the software.
A)
click- wrap
B)
shareware
C)
enterprise
D)
volume
E)
implied
64)
An enterprise license is also known as a(n) ________ license.
A)
shrink-wrap
B)
volume
C)
click-wrap
D)
shareware
E)
implied
65)
Which of the following is true for software as a service?
A)
It is not scalable in response to large increases in demand.
B)
It involves fixed monthly and yearly costs for the services.
C)
It requires the installation of specialized interfaces at the client end.
D)
It allows clients to access services on an as-needed basis.
E)
It requires an organization to maintain and develop the software.
66)
BelAir Tech has developed and run its own information
system for the past ten years. However, the company has now decided to
outsource its IS function to a service provider.
Which of the following, if true, will strengthen BelAir's
decision?
A)
BelAir's IS team developed the existing system from
scratch and has ironed out most faults over the years.
B)
The service provider is highly recommended by its other clients.
C)
Most BelAir employees are familiar with the current
information system.
D)
BelAir has seen a fall in company revenue over the
last year.
E)
Outsourcing its IS function did not benefit BelAir's competitor, Amis Systems.
67)
Which of the following is an example of a basic relationship between an
outsourcing vendor and client?
A)
STS Systems usually offers BelAir a discount on every
purchase it makes.
B)
BelAir sets its system preferences according to STS
products.
C)
BelAir buys a system from the vendor who offers the
cheapest prices.
D)
STS has a direct stake in the success of BelAir's
performance.
E)
STS modifies its product prices according to BelAir's
requirements.
Chapter
10: Securing Information Systems
1)
A group of inexperienced computer operators cause the loss of valuable
information. This information loss can be classified as one caused due to
________.
A)
natural disasters
B)
interactions with consultants
C)
accidents
D)
links to outside contacts
E)
external forces
2)
Which of the following is the most complete definition of a computer crime?
A)
the act of using a computer to commit an illegal act
B)
processing private information from an official computer system
C)
unauthorized use of a computer device or patented software
D)
stealing of computer devices or software licenses
E)
unauthorized access of passwords and personal information
3)
Which of the following is one of the main federal laws in the United States
against computer crimes?
A)
Satellite Act of 1962
B)
Trade Expansions Act of 1962
C)
United States Information and Educational Exchange Act
D)
Central Intelligence Agency Act
E)
Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986
4)
The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act of 1986 prohibits ________.
A)
accessing company e-mail or other such confidential information from public
computers
B)
threatening to damage computer systems in order to extort money or other
valuables
C)
the use of encoded chips to provide access to companies' confidential
information
D)
contracting with consultants outside the United States to process key
information
E)
gaining access to voice-related communications for investigation or any other
purpose
5)
Which of the following US laws amended the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act to
allow investigators access to voice-related communications?
A)
the Electronic Communications Privacy Act
B)
the Computer Abuse Amendments Act
C)
the USA Patriot Act
D)
the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act
E)
the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act
6)
Which of the following acts have made it a crime to break into any electronic
communications service, including telephone services?
A)
the Electronic Communications Privacy Act
B)
the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act
C)
the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
D)
the USA Patriot Act
E)
the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act
7)
Violating data belonging to banks or other financial institutions is a crime in
the United States. Which of the following legislations prohibit such
violations?
A)
the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act
B)
the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
C)
the USA Patriot Act
D)
the Banking Rights and Privacy Act
E)
the Electronic Communications Privacy Act
8)
Some violations of state and federal computer crime laws are punishable by
fines and by not more than one year in prison. Such violations are charged as
________.
A)
misdemeanors
B)
felonies
C)
federal crimes
D)
indictments
E)
record sealings
9)
Some computer criminals attempt to break into systems or deface Web sites to
promote political or ideological goals. They are called ________.
A)
hacktivists
B)
crackers
C)
ethical hackers
D)
patriot hackers
E)
cyber soldiers
10)
Today, people who break into computer systems with the intention of doing
damage or committing a crime are usually called ________.
A)
hackers
B)
hacktivists
C)
patriot hackers
D)
cyber soldiers
E)
crackers
11)
WikiLeaks is a famous not-for-profit whistle-blowing
Web site. MasterCard and Visa stopped payments to WikiLeaks
after a series of leaks by the site. An anonymous group attacked the Web sites
of both MasterCard and Visa reacting to this. These attackers, who tried to
protect WikiLeaks, can be called ________.
A)
hacktivists
B)
crackers
C)
ethical hackers
D)
patriot hackers
E)
cyber soldiers
12)
Employees steal time on company computers to do personal business. This can be
considered an example of ________.
A)
unauthorized access
B)
hacking
C)
Web vandalism
D)
cyberstalking
E)
cyberbullying
13)
A(n) ________ is a destructive program that disrupts the normal functioning of
computer systems.
A)
virus
B)
worm
C)
Trojan horse
D)
spam
E)
adware
14)
In May 2000, a malware email with "I LOVE YOU"in
the subject field, spread to numerous computers in the world. The program
replicated itself to everyone in the user's Outlook address book and then
destroyed local files. This love email forced several organizations to shut
down their e-mail systems. The malware discussed here is an example of a
________.
A)
Trojan horse
B)
spyware
C)
computer virus
D)
spam
E)
logic bomb
15)
Ronald downloads a movie from the Internet. During this process, his system
gets affected by malicious software. The file does nothing initially and his
system functions as usual for a few days. Later the file reproduces itself and
starts to slow down his system. In a month's time his system is fully affected
by the malware. Which of the following is most similar to the situation
described here?
A)
Albert visits a travel Web site to book a flight from New York to Los Angeles.
He visits the Web site from his computer after 15 days and his home page is set
by default to book return tickets from Los Angeles to New York.
B)
Mary's computer gets affected by malicious software. Her computer appears to be
performing as usual though the malware is performing underlying functions
dictated by the intrusive code.
C)
Andrew uses Windows operating system. A malicious code affects his computer and
changes the name of his Internet explorer to ABC Net. The malware steals his
personal information by remaining as a host.
D)
Robert receives a mail with the subject line "I am here." When he
opens the mail, he loses all the local files and the file is sent to all the
contacts in his outlook ID.
E)
Anderson receives a malware file through email. On January 1st, the malware
alters the name of his local files and displays funny names.
16)
A(n) ________ is a variation of a virus that is targeted at networks and takes
advantage of security holes in operating systems and other software to
replicate endlessly across the Internet. This causes servers to crash and
denies service to Internet users.
A)
spyware
B)
worm
C)
virus
D)
Trojan horse
E)
DOS virus
17)
The official Web site of the Iranian government was made unreachable by foreign
activists seeking to help the opposition parties during the 2009 Iranian
election protests. Web sites belonging to many Iranian news agencies were also
made unreachable by the activists. This cyber protest is an example of a(n)
________ attack.
A)
denial of service
B)
logic bombs
C)
Trojan horse
D)
online predator
E)
bot herder
18)
________ refers to any software that covertly gathers information about a user
through an Internet connection without the user's knowledge.
A)
Spyware
B)
Spam
C)
Web filter
D)
Cookie
E)
Bot herder
19)
Which of the following terms represents junk newsgroup postings used for the
purpose of advertising for some product or service?
A)
spam
B)
adware
C)
cookie
D)
Internet hoax
E)
Web filter
20)
Robert receives a mail which says he has won an online lottery worth $50
Billion. Robert was wondering how he could win it without even buying the
lottery. It was a spam mail intended to obtain the bank account details and the
credit card number of Robert. Such attempts to trick financial account and
credit card holders are called ________.
A)
logic bombing
B)
spim hacking
C)
phishing
D)
tunneling
E)
cyberterrorism
21)
Phishing refers to the ________.
A)
attempts to trick financial account and credit card holders into giving away
their authorization information
B)
process of causing system instability or system crashes to steal information
from client computers across a network
C)
practice of providing free software paid for by advertisements appearing during
the use of the software
D)
act of flooding customers with unwanted information, images, and other
marketable information
E)
process of installing a software in the customers' browser to extract personal
information of users
22)
Which of the following is a message passed to a Web browser on a user's computer
by a Web server?
A)
cookie
B)
botnet
C)
honeypot
D)
spim
E)
spam
23)
When using Yahoo Messenger, you get an unsolicited advertisement from a
company. This advertisement contained a link to connect to the merchant's Web
site. Which of the following is the best way of classifying this advertisement?
A)
Adware
B)
Cookie
C)
Internet hoax
D)
Spim
E)
cyber squat
24)
Which of the following is the most accurate definition of a botnet?
A)
group of hackers working together to obtain unauthorized access to a system or
network
B)
spider software used by a search algorithm to crawl various Web sites to return
a query
C)
group of destructive softwares working independently
to achieve a common goal
D)
a common platform used by search engines to index the contents of a Web site
E)
destructive software robots, working together on a collection of zombie
computers via the Internet
25)
A hacker takes an individual's social security number, credit card number, and
other personal information for the purpose of using the victim's credit rating
to borrow money, buy merchandise, and otherwise run up debts that are never
repaid. This practice is called ________.
A)
identity theft
B)
cyberstalking
C)
cyberbullying
D)
internet spamming
E)
internet hoaxing
26)
________ are false messages often circulated online about new viruses,
earthquakes ; kids in trouble; cancer causes; or any other topic of public
interest.
A)
Internet hoaxes
B)
Honeypots
C)
Cookies
D)
Logic bombs
E)
Malware
27)
Arbitron consultants, a leading software consulting firm in the United States,
decide to launch ERP an ERP Solution. The company chooses the brand name ArbitEnterprise for the new solution. However, when the
company attempted to register the domain name, it found that the domain name
was registered to an unknown firm. The small firm is now attempting to sell the
domain name to Arbitron. Which of the following terms refers to this practice
of buying a domain name only to sell it for big bucks?
A)
cybersquatting
B)
logic bombing
C)
cyberbullying
D)
hot backing up
E)
cyberstalking
28)
Identify the term that represents the dubious practice of registering a domain
name and then trying to sell the name for big bucks to the person, company, or
organization most likely to want it.
A)
cybersquatting
B)
cyberstalking
C)
cyberbullying
D)
cyberwar
E)
cyberharassment
29)
Cyber criminals gain information on a victim by monitoring online activities,
accessing databases, and so on and make false accusations that damage the
reputation of the victim on blogs, Web sites, chat rooms, or e-commerce sites.
Such acts are called ________.
A)
cybersquatting
B)
cyberstalking
C)
cyberbullying
D)
cyberwar
E)
cyberboating
30)
Which of the following refers to the practice of deliberately causing emotional
distress in the victim?
A)
cyberbullying
B)
cyberboating
C)
cyberstalking
D)
bot herdering
E)
cybersquatting
31)
Which of the following creations typically obtain patent rather than copyright?
A)
material inventions
B)
software
C)
music files
D)
literature
E)
paintings
32)
An organized attempt by a country's military to disrupt or destroy the
information and communication systems of another country.Which
of the following terms best represents such attacks by a country?
A)
cyberwar
B)
Internet hoaxing
C)
cyber terrorism
D)
Web vandalism
E)
logic bomb
33)
Independent citizens or supporters of a country that perpetrate attacks on
perceived or real enemies are called ________.
A)
patriot hackers
B)
bot herders
C)
online predators
D)
hacktivists
E)
ethical hackers
34)
Jester is a famous hacker who describes himself as a "hacktivist
for good." He launches attacks on terrorist sites that pose threats to
nations. Jester claims that he is obstructing the lines of communication for
terrorists, sympathizers, fixers, facilitators, oppressive regimes and other
general bad guys. Jester can be called a(n) ________.
A)
ethical hacker
B)
cyber terrorist
C)
bot herder
D)
patriot hacker
E)
honeypot
35)
________ is the use of computer and networking technologies, by individuals and
organized groups, against persons or property to intimidate or coerce
governments, civilians, or any segment of society in order to attain political,
religious, or ideological goals.
A)
Cyberterrorism
B)
Web vandalism
C)
Cyberwar
D)
Patriot hacking
E)
Cyberbullying
36)
A mass cyber attack occurred in a country when it
took severe actions against a group of citizens who protested the country's
policies. The attack involved a denial-of-service in which selected sites were
bombarded with traffic to force them offline. This is an example of ________.
A)
cyberterrorism
B)
logic bombing
C)
hot backing up
D)
cyberbullying
E)
cybersquatting
37)
________ refers to the use of the vast amount of information available on the
Internet regarding virtually any topic for planning, recruitment, and numerous
other endeavors.
A)
Data mining
B)
Information dissemination
C)
Data mobilization
D)
Cyber audit
E)
Cybersquatting
38)
Which of the following is a significant disadvantage to using acts of cyberterrorism as a weapon?
A)
Cyberattacks are difficult to control and may not
achieve the desired destruction.
B)
Information destruction is not often considered crucial by opposing nations.
C)
Cyberattacks cause more emotions in the public than
the actual material destruction caused.
D)
Cyberattacks lead to more drama than physical attacks
and could lead to severe action against them.
E)
Such attacks cannot be used against the military and governmental departments.
39)
________ refers to precautions taken to keep all aspects of information systems
safe from destruction, manipulation, or unauthorized use or access.
A)
Information systems security
B)
Information systems management
C)
Information systems organization
D)
Information systems audit
E)
Information systems control
40)
Which of the following is a process in which you assess the value of the assets
being protected, determine their likelihood of being compromised, and compare
the probable costs of their being compromised with the estimated costs of
whatever protection you might have to take?
A)
risk analysis
B)
information systems audit
C)
physical access analysis
D)
operational analysis
E)
data authentication
41)
An organization takes active countermeasures to protect its systems, such as
installing firewalls. This approach is ________.
A)
risk reduction
B)
risk acceptance
C)
risk rescheduling
D)
risk transference
E)
risk postponing
42)
An organization does not implement countermeasures against information threats;
instead it simply absorbs the damages that occur. This approach is called ________.
A)
risk acceptance
B)
risk reduction
C)
risk mitigation
D)
risk transference
E)
risk rescheduling
43)
Ciscon Telecom is a mobile operator in the European
Union. The company provides personalized services to its customers and its
databases contain valuable information about its customers. The loss of
customer information used to decide services would be extremely harmful to the
organization. Which of the following strategies used by Ciscon
is an example of risk transference?
A)
The company insures any possible data loss for a large sum.
B)
The company forms a special team of top executives to monitor and correct the
information policies.
C)
It installs a corporate firewall to protect unauthorized access to information.
D)
It enforces a strict employee data policy and prohibits employees from
unauthorized access.
E)
The company decides to absorb any damages that might occur.
44)
RBS Publishing is a leading media company in France. The company handles
sensitive information and often finds it susceptible to information threats. As
a counter measure the company installs strong firewalls and protective
software. These steps are a part of ________ strategy.
A)
risk acceptance
B)
risk reduction
C)
risk mitigation
D)
risk transference
E)
risk rescheduling
45)
An organization is using physical access restrictions to safeguard information
systems when it uses ________.
A)
audit-control software
B)
firewalls
C)
encryption
D)
passwords
E)
secure data centers
46)
Your company uses a fingerprint recognition system instead of an access card.
This helps the company prevent unauthorized physical access. Which of the
following technologies is used for restriction here?
A)
biometrics
B)
virtual private networks
C)
secure tunneling
D)
access-control software
E)
encryption
47)
An organization is using biometrics when it uses ________ to identify
employees.
A)
fingerprints
B)
access cards
C)
pattern formations
D)
bar codes
E)
code numbers
48)
________ software allows computer users access only to those files related to their
work.
A)
Access-control
B)
Firewall
C)
Audit-control
D)
Denial-of-service
E)
Risk analysis
49)
An attacker accesses a network, intercepts data from it, and uses network
services and sends attack instructions to it without entering the home, office,
or organization that owns the network. This new form of attack is known as
________ attack.
A)
drive-by hacking
B)
hacktivist
C)
honeypot
D)
cybersquatting
E)
denial-of-service
50)
Albitrex Systems is an Asian software consulting firm
which develops solutions for companies in the United States and Europe. The
company is heavily dependent on Internet for transporting data. The company
wants to ensure that only authorized users access the data and that the data
cannot be intercepted and compromised. Which of the following would be most
helpful to the company in achieving this goal?
A)
spam filtering
B)
hot backing up
C)
tunneling
D)
open transmitting
E)
disaster recovery planning
51)
Which of the following is a part of a computer system designed to detect intrusion
and prevent unauthorized access to or from a private network?
A)
firewall
B)
cookie
C)
botnet
D)
honeypot
E)
spam filter
52)
Which of the following is a valid observation about encryption?
A)
Encrypted messages cannot be deciphered without the decoding key.
B)
It is used for data enhancement rather than data protection.
C)
Encryption is performed only after the messages enter the network.
D)
The encryption approach is not dependent on the type of data transmission.
E)
Encryption implementation should be performed without involving third parties.
53)
Implementing encryption on a large scale, such as on a busy Web site, requires
a third party, called a(n) ________.
A)
certificate authority
B)
virtual private network
C)
arbitrative authority
D)
control center
E)
backup site
54)
________ software is used to keep track of computer activity so that inspectors
can spot suspicious activity and take action.
A)
Access-control
B)
Firewall
C)
Audit-control
D)
Denial-of-service
E)
Risk analysis
55)
A cold backup site is a(n) ________.
A)
empty warehouse with all necessary connections for power and communication
B)
warehouse that contains non-critical information
C)
warehouse that contains information on metadata rather than operational data
D)
database that contains historical information and data
E)
database that is used less frequently than other databases
56)
An organization builds a fully equipped backup facility, having everything from
office chairs to a one-to-one replication of the most current data. This
facility is called a(n) ________ backup site.
A)
replica
B)
recurring
C)
hot
D)
virtual private
E)
collaborative
57)
Some data centers rent server space to multiple customers and provide necessary
infrastructure in terms of power, backups, connectivity, and security. Such
data centers are called ________.
A)
collocation facilities
B)
hot backup sites
C)
zombie computers
D)
offshore networks
E)
virtual private networks
58)
Which of the following terms refers to a computer, data, or network site that
is designed to be enticing to crackers so as to detect, deflect, or counteract
illegal activity?
A)
honeypot
B)
firewall
C)
bot herder
D)
botnet
E)
zombie computer
59)
The ________ policy explains technical controls on all organizational computer
systems, such as access limitations, audit-control software, firewalls, and so
on.
A)
account management
B)
security
C)
incident handling
D)
information
E)
disaster recovery
60)
Identify the policy that lists procedures for adding new users to systems and
removing users who have left the organization.
A)
information policy
B)
use policy
C)
incident handling procedures
D)
disaster recovery plan
E)
account management policy
61)
Which of the following types of plans describes how a business resumes
operation after a disaster?
A)
business continuity plan
B)
internal operations plan
C)
collocation facilities plan
D)
emergency operation plan
E)
virtual private network plan
62)
Recovery point objectives of a recovery plan specify ________.
A)
the maximum time allowed to recover from a catastrophic event
B)
data structures and patterns of the data
C)
the minimum time allowed to recover from a catastrophic event
D)
how current the backup data should be
E)
the capacity of a backup server in storing the necessary data
63)
Controls that are used to assess whether anything went wrong, such as
unauthorized access attempts are called ________ controls.
A)
detective
B)
preventive
C)
corrective
D)
adaptive
E)
protective
64)
Organizations periodically have an external entity review the controls so as to
uncover any potential problems in the controls. This process is called
________.
A)
an information systems audit
B)
risk analysis
C)
information modification
D)
a recovery point objective analysis
E)
a recovery time objective analysis
65)
Which of the following laws makes it mandatory for organizations to demonstrate
that there are controls in place to prevent misuse or fraud, controls to detect
any potential problems, and effective measures to correct any problems?
A)
Sarbanes-Oxley Act
B)
Trade Expansions Act of 1962
C)
Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986
D)
Central Intelligence Agency Act
E)
USA Patriot Act
66)
Which of the following types of control is used to define the aims and
objectives of an organization?
A)
standards
B)
procedures
C)
schemes
D)
policies
E)
systems
67)
Which of the following is an example of organization and management control?
A)
policies about incident reporting
B)
collocation facilities at an organization
C)
general policies about rights of access
D)
generation of activity logs of employees
E)
general policies about disaster planning