Information Systems Today, 5e (Valacich/Schneider)
Chapter
4: Enabling Commerce Using the Internet
1)
Electronic commerce is used to conduct business with business partners such as
suppliers and intermediaries. This form of EC is commonly referred to as ________
electronic commerce.
A)
business-to-consumer
B)
peer-to-peer
C)
business-to-business
D)
consumer-to-consumer
E)
business-to-employee
2)
Which of the following statements is true about electronic commerce?
A)
Business-to-business is by far the largest form of electronic commerce in terms
of revenues.
B)
It is limited to transactions between businesses and consumers.
C)
Electronic commerce between businesses and their employees is not possible.
D)
All forms of electronic commerce involve business firms.
E)
Consumer-to-consumer electronic commerce is a complete reversal of the
traditional business-to-consumer electronic commerce.
3)
Which of the following is an example of business-to-consumer electronic
commerce?
A)
Brenda files her income tax online.
B)
A manufacturer conducts business over the Web with its retailers.
C)
Juan buys Kevin's guitar on eBay.com.
D)
Reuben buys a shoe on Yebhi.com.
E)
Sandra, an employee, uses the Web to make a change her health benefits.
4)
Which of the following is an example of consumer-to-consumer electronic
commerce?
A)
Niobi makes an online deposit of $5,000 into her
friend Carla's account because she needs financial help.
B)
Heath buys a gift for Vannessa from Amazon.com.
C)
Blanco, a manufacturer, conducts business over the Web with its retailers.
D)
Ted files his income tax online.
E)
Marty buys Lobsang's mountaineering equipment from
eBay.com
5)
Ben buys an Olympus E-PL2 from Sony which starts malfunctioning. When he opts
for an exchange, the customer representative says that an exchange or repair is
not possible because the damage was of a physical nature and not covered under
warranty. Which of the following consequences, if true, would be an example of
consumer-to-consumer electronic commerce?
A)
Ben sells the Olympus E-PL2 to Balvinder Singh in
India through eBay.com.
B)
Ben files an online suit against Sony.
C)
Ben files a complaint on Sony's Web site asking for an escalation.
D)
Ben buys a Canon G 12.
E)
Ben sells the Olympus E-PL2 to the world's largest used camera dealer KEH.com.
6)
Which of the following is a result of global information dissemination?
A)
Firms link Web sites to corporate databases to provide real-time access to
personalized information.
B)
Firms tailor their products and services to meet a customer's particular needs
on a large scale.
C)
Firms market their products and services over vast distances.
D)
Firms provide immediate communication and feedback to and from customers.
E)
Firms provide ways for clients and firms to conduct business online without
human assistance.
7)
Which of the following actions explains mass customization?
A)
Firms tailor their products and services to meet a customer's particular needs
on a large scale.
B)
Firms provide immediate communication and feedback to and from customers.
C)
Firms provide ways for clients and firms to conduct business online without
human assistance.
D)
Firms market their products and services over vast distances.
E)
Firms link Web sites to corporate databases to provide real-time access to
personalized information.
8)
Which of the following is an advantage of using interactive communication via
the Web?
A)
reduced transaction costs
B)
increased customer loyalty
C)
enhanced operational efficiency
D)
reduced brand dilution
E)
decreased cannibalization
9)
The phenomenon of cutting out the "middleman" and reaching customers
more directly and efficiently is known as ________.
A)
gentrification
B)
demutualization
C)
reintermediation
D)
mutualization
E)
disintermediation
10)
Which of the following is an example disintermediation?
A)
Land Rover markets most of its four-wheel drives in high altitude regions where
vehicles require more power.
B)
Dunkin' Donuts expanded its menu beyond breakfasts by adding hearty snacks that
substitute for meals, which consists of items like Dunkin' Dawgs,
hot dogs wrapped in dough.
C)
Gatorade Thirst Quencher is a market leader in sports drinks. It is now
planning to market its drinks to working women in urban areas.
D)
OakTeak, a furniture manufacturing firm, started
selling directly to its customers after it experienced a dip in sales due to
channel conflicts between retailers.
E)
A luxury car company creates a hybrid line of automobiles for consumers who are
concerned about the environment.
11)
________ refers to the design of business models that reintroduce middlemen in
order to reduce the challenges brought on by dealing directly with customers.
A)
Reintermediation
B)
Demutualization
C)
Gentrification
D)
Disintermediation
E)
Mutualization
12)
Which of the following is an example of reintermediation?
A)
The black Centurian card is issued by invitation only
to customers who spend more than $250,000 a year on other American Express
cards.
B)
P&G acquires the list of parents-to-be and showers them with samples of Pampers
and other baby products to capture a share of their future purchases.
C)
Kambo, a fashion apparel company that deals directly
with customers to sell its products, added retailers to its supply chain to
cater to its target audience in remote geographic locations.
D)
OakTeak, a furniture manufacturing firm, started
selling directly to its customers after it experienced a dip in sales due to
channel conflicts between retailers.
E)
Dunkin' Donuts expanded its menu beyond breakfasts by adding hearty snacks that
substitute for meals, which consists of items like Dunkin' Dawgs,
hot dogs wrapped in dough.
13)
Companies following a ________ business strategy choose to operate solely in
the traditional physical markets.
A)
click-only
B)
click-and-mortar
C)
brick-and-click
D)
click-and-brick
E)
brick-and-mortar
14)
Which of the following statements is true about firms pursuing a
brick-and-mortar business strategy?
A)
These firms do not have physical store locations.
B)
These firms do not indulge in electronic commerce.
C)
These firms focus purely on electronic commerce to conduct business.
D)
These firms conduct business electronically in cyberspace.
E)
These firms operate in both physical and virtual arenas.
Answer: B
15)
Which of the following statements is true about companies pursuing a click-only
business strategy?
A)
These companies approach business activities in a traditional manner by
operating physical locations.
B)
These companies operate in both physical and virtual arenas.
C)
These companies do not indulge in electronic commerce to conduct their
businesses.
D)
These companies do not have physical store locations.
E)
These companies choose to operate solely in the traditional physical markets.
16)
Which of the following statements is true about firms pursuing a
click-and-mortar business strategy?
A)
These firms focus purely on electronic commerce to conduct businesses.
B)
These firms operate in both physical and virtual arenas.
C)
These firms do not indulge in electronic commerce.
D)
These firms only conduct business electronically in cyberspace.
E)
These firms do not have physical store locations.
17)
Which of the following firms would most likely pursue the brick-and-mortar
strategy?
A)
KEH.com is a used camera dealer that buys and sells cameras across the globe.
B)
Castro's is a watch manufacturing firm known for its effective mass
customization.
C)
SmartInv is a brokerage firm that allows its
customers to personalize their portfolios.
D)
BestBaker is a local bakery store in Bantam,
Connecticut and caters exclusively to its residents.
E)
Nebo, a computer manufacturer, has pursued disintermediation and sells directly
to customers.
18)
Which of the following statements is true about firms pursuing a
click-and-mortar business strategy?
A)
These firms learn how to fully maximize commercial opportunities in both
domains.
B)
These firms can often compete more effectively on price.
C)
These firms tend to be highly adept with technology and can innovate very
rapidly as new technologies become available.
D)
Customers of these firms find it difficult to return a product in case of
damages.
E)
These firms can reduce prices to rock-bottom levels, although a relatively
small firm may not sell enough products.
19)
EZBiz, the brainchild of three college friends, is a
startup venture which plans to produce and market sports gear. They are
currently trying to decide between a brick-and-click strategy and a click-only
strategy. Which of the following, if true, would most undermine the decision to
adopt a click-only strategy?
A)
The company has limited access to funds and is looking to keep its costs low.
B)
The public is wary of sharing confidential information after a recent spate of
credit card scandals.
C)
A competitor is facing severe backlash after inadvertently releasing sensitive
data into the public domain.
D)
Several companies who have switched from brick-and-mortar strategy to a
click-only are experiencing severe channel conflicts.
E)
Some click-only companies have been unable to achieve economies of scale and
subsequently are unable to offer lower prices.
20)
EZBiz, the brainchild of three college friends, is a
startup venture which plans to produce sports gear. They are currently trying
to decide between a brick-and-click strategy and a click-only strategy. Which
of the following, if true, would most support the decision to adopt a
click-only strategy?
A)
E-commerce places firms on a global platform, in direct competition with the
best in the business.
B)
Retailers have a preference for established brands that can pay good margins.
C)
Research suggests that some customers prefer online shopping because of the
convenience it offers.
D)
Product trials and demonstrations are an essential part of the consumer buying
process.
E)
Cyber laws are yet to reach the level of sophistication required to facilitate
safe online transactions.
21)
Which of the following statements is true about the revenue model?
A)
It emphasizes the utility that the product/service has to offer to customers.
B)
It analyzes the existing players in the market and the nature of the
competition.
C)
It describes the promotion plan of the product/service.
D)
It describes how the firm will produce a superior return on invested capital.
E)
It analyzes the background and experience of the company leadership.
22)
Which of the following questions should a manager consider while analyzing the
"value proposition" component of the business model?
A)
How much are you selling the product for?
B)
How fierce is the competition?
C)
How do you plan to let your potential customers know about your
product/service?
D)
Can the leaders of the organization get the job done?
E)
Why do customers need your product/service?
23)
While preparing a business model, a manager considers the question, "How
do you plan to let your potential customers know about your
product/service?" Which of the following components of the businessing model is he/she considering?
A)
Revenue model
B)
Management team
C)
Marketing strategy
D)
Value proposition
E)
Competitive environment
24)
Paying businesses that bring or refer customers to another business is known as
________.
A)
affiliate marketing
B)
subscription marketing
C)
viral marketing
D)
stealth marketing
E) buzz marketing
25)
A collection of companies and processes are involved in moving a product from
the suppliers of raw materials, to the suppliers of intermediate components, to
final production, and ultimately, to the customer; these companies are
collectively referred to as ________.
A)
customer management
B)
product lifecycle
C)
enterprise resource management
D)
supply chain
E)
market entry
26)
Prior to the introduction of the Internet and Web, the secure communication of
proprietary information in business-to-business electronic commerce was
facilitated using ________.
A)
enterprise resource planning
B)
electronic data interchange
C)
cloud computing
D)
supply chain management
E)
executive information system
27)
Which of the following statements is true about the extranet?
A)
It restricts the company's information from going "on the Web."
B)
It can be accessed only by employees within an organization.
C)
It contains company related information which all the employees of an
organization can access.
D)
It enables two or more firms to use the Internet to do business together.
E)
It requires large expenditures to train users on the technologies.
28)
Web-based technologies are cross platform, meaning that disparate computing
systems can communicate with each other provided that ________.
A)
the computing systems have been manufactured by the
same company
B)
the computing system manufacturing companies are
business partners
C)
they are located in the same country
D)
standard Web protocols have been implemented
E)
the computing system manufacturing companies allow it
29)
Companies use ________ to secure proprietary information stored within the
corporate local area network and/or wide area network so that the information
can be viewed only by authorized users.
A)
firewalls
B)
phishing
C)
rootkits
D)
bots
E)
pharming
30)
Organizations primarily use extranets to ________.
A)
conduct market research
B)
manage their supply chains
C)
identify their target market
D)
control brand dilution
E)
manage public relations
31)
In the context of B2B supply chain management, ________ can be defined as access
points through which a business partner accesses secured, proprietary
information from an organization.
A)
bots
B)
forums
C)
portals
D)
rootkits
E)
hosts
32)
________ can provide substantial productivity gains and cost savings by
creating a single point of access where the company can conduct business with
any number of business partners.
A)
Rootkits
B)
Pharming
C)
Bots
D)
Phishing
E)
Portals
33)
________ automate the business processes involved in
selling products from a single supplier to multiple buyers.
A)
Supplier portals
B)
Reference portals
C)
Customer portals
D)
Procurement portals
E)
Sourcing portals
34)
________ are designed to automate the business processes that occur before,
during, and after sales have been transacted between a supplier and multiple
customers.
A)
Sourcing portals
B)
Reference portals
C)
Supplier portals
D)
Customer portals
E)
Procurement portals
35)
________ are set up as B2B Web sites that provide
custom-tailored offers or specific deals based on sales volume.
A)
Sourcing portals
B)
Customer portals
C)
Procurement portals
D)
Reference portals
E)
Supplier portals
36)
What is the difference between customer and supplier portals and
business-to-business (B2B) marketplaces?
A)
Unlike customer and supplier portals, B2B marketplaces cannot be classified as
extranets.
B)
Unlike customer and supplier portals, B2B marketplaces are secured by
firewalls.
C)
Unlike customer and supplier portals, B2B marketplaces only serve vertical
markets.
D)
Unlike customer and supplier portals, B2B marketplaces are associated with a
particular buyer or supplier who deals with multiple business partners.
E)
Unlike customer and supplier portals, B2B marketplaces allow many buyers and
many sellers to come together.
37)
Markets comprised of firms operating within a certain industry sector are known
as ________ markets.
A)
vertical
B)
parallel
C)
horizontal
D)
stipulated
E)
focused
38)
Which of the following statements is true about B2B and B2C payments?
A)
Most B2B payments are made through credit cards.
B)
Most B2C payments are made by checks.
C)
Most B2B payments are made through electronic payment services.
D)
Most B2B payments are made by cash.
E)
Most B2B payments are made by checks.
39)
Credit cards and electronic payment services are not used for large B2B
transactions because of ________.
A)
the risks associated with these services
B)
the complications arising out of these transactions
C)
preset spending limits
D)
the resulting decrease in working capital
E)
the expenses associated with these services
40)
Organizations implement intranets to support ________ electronic commerce.
A)
business-to-business
B)
business-to-consumer
C)
business-to-government
D)
business-to-employee
E)
consumer-to-business
41)
Intranets mostly affect the ________ of an organization.
A)
suppliers
B)
employees
C)
customers
D)
retailers
E)
advertisers
2)
________ is used to facilitate the secured transmission of proprietary
information within an organization.
A)
Intranet
B)
Transnet
C)
Ethernet
D)
Extranet
E)
Telnet
43)
Which of the following distinguishes an intranet from an extranet?
A)
An intranet looks and acts just like a publicly accessible Web site.
B)
An intranet uses the same hardware as a publicly accessible Web site.
C)
Users access their company's intranet using their Web browser.
D)
An intranet uses the same networking technologies as a publicly accessible Web
site.
E)
In its simplest form, intranet communications do not travel across the
Internet.
44)
________ are temporary work groups with a finite task
and life cycle.
A)
Intensive forces
B)
Cross functional teams
C)
Task forces
D)
Staff committees
E)
Self directed work teams
45)
The term ________ refers to a class of software that enables people to work
together more effectively.
A)
malware
B)
groupware
C)
freeware
D)
webware
E)
pestware
46)
Which of the following is an asynchronous groupware tool?
A)
shared whiteboard
B)
online chat
C)
intranet
D)
electronic meeting support system
E)
video communication system
47)
One of the benefits of groupware is its parallelism. Which of the following
statements best explains this sentence?
A)
It keeps the group on track and helps avoid costly diversions.
B)
It can easily incorporate external electronic data and files.
C)
It enables members to collaborate from different places at different times.
D)
It automatically records member ideas, comments, and votes.
E)
It enables many people to speak and listen at the same time.
48)
Which of the following is a synchronous groupware tool?
A)
e-mail
B)
intranet
C)
group calendar
D)
online chat
E)
automation system
49)
Which of the following provides customers with the ability to obtain
personalized information by querying corporate databases and other information
sources?
A)
e-filing
B)
e-integration
C)
e-information
D)
e-transaction
E)
e-tailing
50)
The online sales of goods and services is known as
________.
A)
e-information
B)
e-integration
C)
e-tailing
D)
e-collaboration
E)
e-filing
51)
Which of the following occurs in a reverse pricing system?
A)
Customers specify the product they are looking for and how much they are
willing to pay for it.
B)
Customers are provided with the product and its price.
C)
Customers are provided with a product and can decide how much they are willing
to pay for it.
D)
Customers specify the product they are looking for and the company provides the
product with a price.
E)
Customers cannot decide the product but they can decide the price of the
products available.
52)
How do comparison shopping sites generate revenue?
A)
by charging a commission on transactions
B)
by selling their products
C)
by charging a virtual shelf-space fee to manufacturers
D)
by increasing the click-count on their site
E)
by charging distribution fees to consumers
53)
The concept of the Long Tail refers to a focus on ________.
A)
mainstream products
B)
broad markets
C)
generic brands
D)
brand dilution
E)
niche markets
54)
Which of the following is a disadvantage of e-tailing?
A)
It is limited by physical store and shelf space restrictions.
B)
It requires additional time for products to be delivered.
C)
It complicates the process of comparison shopping.
D)
It restricts companies to effectively compete on price.
E)
It reduces a company's inventory turnover time.
55)
Which of the following explains Web analytics?
A)
conducting online marketing research to improve
product quality
B)
analyzing Web sites in order to find the best one in
its category
C)
tracking all online purchasers to try and increase
their frequency of visit to a particular Web site
D)
analyzing Web surfers' behavior in order to improve
Web site performance
E)
analyzing Web sites in order to find the best online
business practices
56)
Which of the following is a mechanism for consumer-to-consumer transactions?
A)
e-tailing
B)
e-integration
C)
e-filing
D)
e-tendering
E)
e-auctions
57)
________ is a form of e-auction in which the highest bidder wins.
A)
Reverse auction
B)
Bartering
C)
Exchange
D)
Forward auction
E)
Request for quote
58)
________ is a form of e-auction where buyers post a request for quote.
A)
A reverse auction
B)
Bartering
C)
An exchange
D)
A forward auction
E)
A request for proposal
59)
Which of the following forms of e-auction typically takes place on a
business-to-business level?
A)
reverse auctions
B)
bartering
C)
exchanges
D)
forward auctions
E)
request for quotes
60)
Doug is a frequent visitor of online auction sites. He uses two different
accounts to place a low followed by a very high bid on the desired item. This
leads other bidders to drop out of the auction. He then retracts the high bid
and wins the item at the low bid. This form of e-auction fraud is known as
________.
A)
shill bidding
B)
bid luring
C)
payment fraud
D)
nonshipment
E)
bid skimming
61)
Which of the following types of e-auction fraud is associated with the sellers failure to ship an item after the payment has been
received?
A)
bid luring
B)
bid shielding
C)
nonshipment
D)
shipping fraud
E)
payment failure
62)
If a company's Web site is listed in the sponsored list of a search engine, the
search engine receives revenue on a ________ basis.
A)
pay-per-click
B)
pay-per-sale
C)
click-through
D)
pay-per-conversion
E)
click-per-visit
63)
Under the ________ pricing model, the firm running the advertisement pays only
when a Web surfer actually clicks on the advertisement.
A)
pay-per-refresh
B)
pay-per-sale
C)
pay-per-click
D)
pay-per-conversion
E)
click-per-visit
64)
Click-through rate reflects ________.
A)
the ratio of surfers who visited the Web site divided
by the number of surfers who clicked on the ad
B)
the ratio of surfers who click on an ad divided by the
number of times it was displayed
C)
the percentage of visitors who actually perform the
marketer's desired action
D)
the ratio of surfers who clicked on the ad divided by
the number of people who made the purchase
E)
the ratio of surfers who visited the Web site divided
by the number of people who made a purchase
65)
________ allows individual Web site owners to post companies' ads on their
pages.
A)
Bum marketing
B)
Stealth marketing
C)
Viral marketing
D)
Buzz marketing
E)
Affiliate marketing
66)
In a ________, a site hosting an advertisement creates fake clicks in order to
get money from the advertiser.
A)
competitive click fraud
B)
irate click fraud
C)
network click fraud
D)
shill click fraud
E)
dedicated click fraud
67)
MakeYourClick is an online ad agency that is known
for its ability to create ads which lure customers to purchase. Brenda, an
ex-employee of the firm, was fired from the agency on baseless grounds. An
angry Brenda inflates MakeYourClick's online
advertising cost by repeatedly clicking on the advertiser's link. Brenda has
committed ________.
A)
competitive click fraud
B)
irate click fraud
C)
network click fraud
D)
shill click fraud
E)
dedicated click fraud
68)
________ is used in order to have small, well-defined tasks performed by a
scalable ad hoc workforce of everyday people.
A)
Nearshoring
B)
Insourcing
C)
Offshoring
D)
Crowdsourcing
E)
Homesourcing
69)
________ is an example of m-commerce.
A)
e-auctions
B)
e-tailing
C)
e911
D)
e-filing
E)
e-integrating
70)
Which of the following is an argument against digital rights management?
A)
It encourages unauthorized duplication.
B)
It enables publishers to infringe on existing consumer rights.
C)
It discourages publishers to control their digital media.
D)
It inhibits online transactions in the industry.
E)
It restricts copyright holders to minimize sales losses.
71)
E-filing is an example of a ________ tool.
A)
government-to-citizen
B)
consumer-to-consumer
C)
government-to-government
D)
consumer-to-business
E)
business-to-business
Chapter 5: Enhancing Collaboration Using Web 2.0
1)
Which of the following is a basic concept associated
with Web 2.0?
A)
shift in users' preference from online sites to
encyclopedias as sources of unbiased information
B)
shift in users' role from the passive consumer of
content to its creator
C)
shift in users' interest from sharing information to
finding information
D)
shift in users' lifestyle due to increased purchasing
power
E)
shift in users' preference to environment-oriented
products
2)
Which of the following is a consequence of the use of social software?
A)
People are using encyclopedias as sources of unbiased information.
B)
People are using environmentally-friendly products.
C)
People have increased purchasing power.
D)
People are sharing more personal information.
E)
People have become passive consumers of content.
3)
The use of ________ within a company's boundaries or between a company and its
customers or stakeholders is referred to as Enterprise 2.0.
A)
Web 1.0 techniques and intranet
B)
extranet and intranet
C)
Web 2.0 techniques and social software
D)
extranet and Web 1.0 techniques
E)
social software and extranet
4)
Which of the following statements is true about Web 1.0?
A)
It helps users share information.
B)
It helps users find information.
C)
Users rule these applications.
D)
Users receive and give recommendations to friends.
E)
It helps connect ideas and people.
5)
A major benefit of social software is the ability to harness the "wisdom
of crowds," which is also referred to as ________.
A)
collaborative filtering
B)
preference elicitation
C)
creative commons
D)
consensus democracy
E)
collective intelligence
6)
The concept of ________ is based on the notion that distributed groups of people
with a divergent range of information and expertise will be able to outperform
the capabilities of individual experts.
A)
cognitive dissonance
B)
creative commons
C)
collective intelligence
D)
consensus democracy
E)
preference elicitation
7)
Which of the following statements is true about a discussion forum?
A)
It started out as a novice's way of expressing themselves using very simple Web
pages.
B)
It is the process of creating an online text diary made up of chronological
entries that comment on everything.
C)
Rather than trying to produce physical books to sell or use as gifts, users
merely want to share stories about their lives or voice their opinions.
D)
It is dedicated to a specific topic, and users can start new threads.
E)
It enables a person to voice his/her thoughts through short "status
updates."
8)
Which of the following statements is true about blogs?
A)
They emulate traditional bulletin boards and allow for threaded discussions
between participants.
B)
They allow individuals to express their thoughts in a one-to-many fashion.
C)
They are dedicated to specific topics, and users can start new threads.
D)
They are moderated so that new postings appear only after they have been vetted
by a moderator.
E)
They enable people to voice their thoughts through short "status
updates."
9)
Which of the following Web 2.0 applications has been classified as the "amateurization" of journalism?
A)
blogs
B)
discussion forums
C)
social presence tools
D)
instant messaging
E)
online chats
10)
Keith Norat, the Chief Technology Officer of Kender Internationals, relies on blogs while making
decisions. In his words, "Blogs are an important part of our purchase
decisions. In todays
environment, blogs provide diverse information that help us to make good
decisions." Which of the following is an underlying assumption?
A)
Information in blogs is accurate.
B)
Some of the blogs are not written well.
C)
Blogs are company sponsored.
D)
Professional bloggers rely heavily on advertisements to sustain their
operations.
E)
Blogs lead to the "amateurization" of
journalism.
11)
Which of the following explains the term "blogosphere?"
A)
the movement against blogs
B)
the amateurization of blogs
C)
the revolution against microblogging
D)
the community of all blogs
E)
the movement against discussion forums
12)
Social presence tools are also known as ________ tools.
A)
social bookmarking
B)
instant chatting
C)
microblogging
D)
videoconferencing
E)
geotagging
13)
Which of the following facilitates real-time written conversations?
A)
instant messaging
B)
discussion forums
C)
status updates
D)
blogs
E)
tagging
14)
________ take the concept of real-time communication a step further by allowing
people to communicate using avatars.
A)
Blogging
B)
Microblogging
C)
Instant messaging
D)
Discussion forums
E)
Virtual worlds
15)
Which of the following statements is true about virtual worlds?
A)
It allows people to communicate using avatars.
B)
Small firms have not been successful in consumer-oriented virtual worlds.
C)
It is designed for short "status updates."
D)
It is the process of creating an online text diary made up of chronological
entries that comment on everything.
E)
Large companies have been able to realize the potential of consumer-oriented
virtual worlds.
16)
The network effect refers to the notion that the value of a network is
dependent on ________.
A)
the speed of the network
B)
the number of other users
C)
the knowledge of the users
D)
the commitment of the users
E)
the technical expertise of the moderators
17)
________ is a cooperative Web 2.0 application making use of the network effect.
A)
Media sharing
B)
RSS
C)
Tagging
D)
Instant messaging
E)
A discussion forum
18)
________ is the distribution of digital media, such as audio or video files via
syndication feeds for playback on digital media players.
A)
Narrowcasting
B)
Crowdsourcing
C)
Blogging
D)
Netcasting
E)
Phishing
19)
Podcasting is a misnomer because podcasts ________.
A)
are concerned with the dissemination of information to
a narrow audience
B)
cannot be played on Apple's iPods
C)
are not related to distribution of digital media for
digital devices
D)
are concerned with outsourcing tasks to a large group
of people or community
E)
can be played on a variety of devices in addition to
Apple's iPods
20)
Social bookmarking allows users to share Internet bookmarks and to create
categorization systems. These categorization systems are referred to as
________.
A)
tag clouds
B)
podcasts
C)
folksonomies
D)
geospatial metadata
E)
microblogs
21)
Which of the following statements is true about social bookmarking?
A)
It is the distribution of digital media.
B)
It allows netcasters to publish and push current
shows to the watchers/listeners.
C)
It allows people to communicate using avatars.
D)
It allows users to create folksonomies.
E)
It allows users to post short "status updates."
22)
________ is the creation of a categorization system by users.
A)
Social cataloging
B)
Podcasting
C)
Social blogging
D)
Netcasting
E)
Crowdsourcing
23)
________ refers to manually adding metadata to media or other content.
A)
Phishing
B)
Tagging
C)
Crowdsourcing
D)
Podcasting
E)
Netcasting
24)
Which of the following statements is true about tagging?
A)
It is the process of creating a categorization systems
by users.
B)
It is the process of distributing digital media for playback on digital media
players.
C)
It is the process of adding metadata to pieces of information.
D)
It is the process of of creating avatars and
syndication feeds.
E)
It is the process of creating an online text diary.
25)
________ refer(s) to a way of visualizing user generated tags or content on a
site.
A)
Crowdsourcing
B)
Tag clouds
C)
Phishing
D)
Podcasting
E)
Pharming
26)
Which of the following is one of the uses of geotagging?
A)
to use avatars while chatting online
B)
to create categorization systems for social cataloging
C)
to know the location of a person sending out a
breaking news update
D)
to create folksonomies for social bookmarking
E)
to use syndicate feeds while sharing media
27)
Which of the following is an example of synchronous communication?
A)
online reviews
B)
work flow automation systems
C)
intranets
D)
videoconferencing
E)
collaborative writing tools
28)
Which of the following is an example of asynchronous communication?
A)
group calendars
B)
videoconferencing
C)
online chatting
D)
shared whiteboards
E)
electronic meeting support system
29)
Which of following factors differentiates asynchronous communication from
synchronous communication?
A)
language
B)
network speed
C)
coordination in time
D)
expertise
E)
distance
30)
In today's business environment, project teams comprise highly specialized
members, many of whom are not colocated. ________ are
comprised of members from different geographic areas.
A)
Work groups
B)
Virtual teams
C)
Work teams
D)
Task forces
E)
Command groups
31)
Which of the following is an electronic communication tool that allows users to
files, documents, and pictures to each other and share information?
A)
e-mail
B)
instant messaging
C)
application sharing
D)
electronic calendars
E)
knowledge management systems
32)
Which of the following is an electronic conferencing tool that facilitates
information sharing and rich interactions between users?
A)
e-mail
B)
wikis
C)
blogs
D)
instant messaging
E)
online document systems
33)
Which of the following is a collaboration management tool that is used to
facilitate virtual or colocated meetings
?
A)
Internet forums
B)
videoconferencing
C)
wikis
D)
fax
E)
intranets
34)
Web-based collaboration tools ________.
A)
allow for easy transferability from one person to
another
B)
have well-documented procedures for system
complexities
C)
reduce the risk of exposing sensitive corporate data
D)
require users to frequently upgrade their software
E)
are complex and time-consuming to learn
35)
Which of the following statements is true about Gmail?
A)
It is an enterprise-level collaboration tool that allows users to create group
Web sites and share team information.
B)
It allows users to select a custom domain name for an additional fee.
C)
It allows users to share events and subscribe to public calendars for new
events.
D)
It is an instant messaging client.
E)
It is an online office suite comprised of a spreadsheet application, a word
processor, and a presentation application.
36)
Which of the following Google Apps is an instant messaging client?
A)
Gmail
B)
Google Calendar
C)
Google Talk
D)
Google Sites
E)
Google Docs
37)
________ is an online office suite comprised of a spreadsheet application, a
word processor, and a presentation application.
A)
Gmail
B)
Google Talk
C)
Google Sites
D)
Google Calendar
E)
Google Docs
38)
Which of the following statements is true about Google Sites?
A)
It is an enterprise-level collaboration tool that allows users to create group
Web sites and share team information.
B)
It allows users to select a custom domain name for an additional fee.
C)
It allows users to share events and subscribe to public calendars for new
events.
D)
It is an instant messaging client.
E)
It is an online office suite comprised of a spreadsheet application, a word
processor, and a presentation application.
39)
A(n) ________ system allows users to publish, edit,
version track, and retrieve digital information.
A)
social presence
B)
collective intelligence
C)
application sharing
D)
content management
E)
peer production
40)
Which of the following statements is true about content management systems?
A)
It is the creation of goods or services by self-organizing communities.
B)
The creation of the goods or services is dependent on the incremental
contributions of the participants.
C)
It allows the assignment of different roles for different users.
D)
Anyone can help in producing or improving the final outcome.
E)
It is a family of syndication feeds used to publish the most current blogs,
podcasts, videos, and news stories.
41)
Which of the following is the responsibility of an administrator in a content
management system?
A)
editing the content into a final form
B)
managing account access levels to the digital
information
C)
sharing team information
D)
publishing new information
E)
creating database applications
42)
________ is the creation of goods or services by self-organizing communities.
A)
Peer production
B)
A folksonomy
C)
Creative commons
D)
Groupware
E)
Social software
43)
Which of the following statements is true about peer production?
A)
The creator is responsible for publishing new information.
B)
Only editors have the right to develop new content.
C)
It is also known as enterprise content systems.
D)
Anyone can help in producing or improving the final outcome.
E)
The guest is a person who can only view the digital information.
44)
Which of the following occurs during wiki wars?
A)
editors do not agree with the creators of the content
B)
participants debate on a particular topic before
creation
C)
administrators refuse to publish a creator's content
D)
guests edit the creator's content without permission
E)
contributors continuously edit or delete each others' posts
45)
________ is a phenomenon where companies use everyday people as a cheap labor
force.
A)
Nearshoring
B)
Phishing
C)
Crowdsourcing
D)
Narrowcasting
E)
Pharming
46)
________ enables people to work in more flexible ways on a variety of
Internet-related projects.
A)
E-filing
B)
E-auction
C)
E-tailing
D)
E-lancing
E)
E-timing
47)
________ sites create social online communities where individuals with a broad
and diverse set of interests meet and collaborate.
A)
Crowdsourcing
B)
Social cataloging
C)
Social networking
D)
Social bookmarking
E)
Media sharing
48)
Which of the following statements is true about viral marketing?
A)
It uses the network effect to increase brand awareness.
B)
It uses everyday people as a cheap labor force.
C)
It is the dissemination of information to a narrow audience.
D)
It enables people to work in more flexible ways on a variety of
Internet-related projects.
E)
It is used to market a product without the audience realizing it.
49)
Which of the following is a critical factor in the success of a viral marketing
campaign?
A)
restricting access to viral content
B)
doing what the audience expects
C)
making sequels
D)
restricting easy distribution
E)
distributing products for free
50)
________ attempts to provide relevant search results by including content from
blogs and microblogging services.
A)
Social search
B)
OpenSearch
C)
Enterprise search
D)
Metasearch
E)
Netsearch
51)
Which of the following statements is true about Real Simple Syndication (RSS)?
A)
It is used to increase brand awareness through the network effect.
B)
It is used to disseminate information to a narrow audience.
C)
It is used to market the product without the audience realizing it.
D)
It is used to enable people to work in more flexible ways on a variety of
Internet-related projects.
E)
It is used to publish the most current blogs, podcasts, videos, and news
stories.
52)
For companies operating in the digital world, online collaboration with
suppliers, business partners, and customers is crucial to being successful.
________ allow(s) data to be accessed without intimate knowledge of other
organizations' systems, enabling machine-to-machine interaction over the
Internet.
A)
Web services
B)
Widgets
C)
RSS feeds
D)
Social search
E)
Peer production
53)
Android is a Web service hosted by Google to ________.
A)
create customized search features
B)
build mobile phone applications
C)
manage personal calendars
D)
integrate Google's mapping system into Web sites
E)
allow users to build applications that work with
multiple social communities
54)
Which of the following statements is true about widgets?
A)
They can be placed on a desktop, but cannot be integrated into a Web page.
B)
They can integrate two or more Web services.
C)
They are created by the integration of Web services and mashups.
D)
They are small interactive tools used for a single purpose.
E)
They can be integrated into a Web page, but cannot be placed on a desktop.
55)
Together, Web services and widgets enable the creation of ________.
A)
protocols
B)
mashups
C)
codecs
D)
folksonomies
E)
tag clouds
56)
Which of the following statements is true about a mashup?
A)
It is a small interactive tool used for a single purpose.
B)
It is used to increase brand awareness through the network effect.
C)
It is the process of allowing companies to use everyday people as a cheap labor
force.
D)
It is used to disseminate information to a narrow audience.
E)
It is an application or a Web site that integrates one or more Web services.
57)
Which of the following is a reason for the development of semantic Web?
A)
Web pages can be understood by people but not by computers.
B)
Users should be able to use any device in any network for any service.
C)
Users give a lot of unnecessary personal information to social networking
sites.
D)
Widgets cannot be integrated into Web pages.
E)
Users are skeptical while making purchases online due to the fear of getting
cheated.
58)
Which of the followings is NOT true about an Enterprise 2.0 strategy?
A)
Web 2.0 sites base their success on user-driven self-expression.
B)
Enterprise 2.0 applications are not suited to traditional top-down
organizational structures.
C)
Enterprise 2.0 applications should be driven by a specific usage context.
D)
Organization-wide Enterprise 2.0 implementations typically need changes in
terms of organizational culture.
E)
Within organizations, the critical mass needed for an Enterprise 2.0
application is often easily achieved.
59)
Enterprise 2.0 is likely to fail if ________.
A)
an organization's workforce is dominated by baby
boomers
B)
an organization has a flat organizational hierarchy
C)
an organization emphasizes open communication
D)
an organization's workforce is dominated by millennials
E)
it is integrated well with an organization's existing
information systems infrastructure
Technology Briefing: Foundations of Information Systems Infrastructure
Networks, the Internet,
and Databases
68)
________ is a computer networking model in which multiple types of computers
are networked together to share data and services.
A)
Centralized computing
B)
Mainframe computing
C)
Task computing
D)
Distributed computing
E)
Serial computing
69)
A(n) ________ is a computer network that spans a
relatively small area, allowing all computer users to connect with each other
to share data and peripheral devices, such as printers.
A)
enterprise network
B)
wide area network
C)
campus area network
D)
local area network
E)
value-added network
70)
A(n) ________ is a wide area network connecting
disparate networks of a single organization into a single network.
A)
value-added network
B)
global network
C)
enterprise network
D)
local area network
E)
personal area network
71)
________ are private, third-party-managed medium-speed
WANs that are shared by multiple organizations.
A)
Value-added networks
B)
Enterprise networks
C)
Global networks
D)
Local area networks
E)
Personal area networks
72)
A(n) ________ is an emerging technology that uses
wireless communication to exchange data between computing devices using
short-range radio communication, typically within an area of 10 meters.
A)
value-added network
B)
local area network
C)
personal area network
D)
enterprise network
E)
campus area network
73)
________ are network services that include the storing, accessing, and
delivering of text, binary, graphic, and digitized video and audio data across
a network.
A)
Print services
B)
File services
C)
Message services
D)
Application services
E)
Software services
74)
The high-speed central networks to which many smaller networks can be connected
are known as ________.
A)
last-mile networks
B)
ISPs
C)
Internet exchange points
D)
private branch exchanges
E)
backbones
75)
Which of the following wireless communication technologies uses high-frequency
light waves to transmit data on an unobstructed path between nodes—computers or
some other device such as a printer—on a network at a distance of up to 24.4
meters?
A)
Bluetooth
B)
wireless LAN
C)
high-frequency radio
D)
infrared line of sight
E)
microwaves
WLANs based on a family of standards called
802.11 are also referred to as ________.
A)
Bluetooth
B)
wireless fidelity
C)
ethernet
D)
personal area networks
E)
infrared line of sight
77)
Which of the following is a characteristic of terrestrial microwave
communication?
A)
high attenuation
B)
speeds up to 16 Mbps
C)
low expense
D)
high susceptibility to eavesdropping
E)
low electromagnetic interference
78)
________ is the set of rules that governs how a given node or workstation gains
access to the network to send or receive data.
A)
Media access control
B)
Logical link control
C)
Hypertext transfer protocol
D)
File transfer protocol
E)
Internet control message protocol
79)
________ is a commonly used method of random access control, in which each
workstation "listens" to traffic on the transmission medium (either
wired or wireless) to determine whether a message is being transmitted.
A)
Code division multiple access
B)
Carrier sense multiple access
C)
Hybrid coordination function
D)
Group packet radio service
E)
Point coordination function
80)
In a(n) ________ network all nodes or workstations are
connected to a central hub, or concentrator, through which all messages pass.
A)
ring
B)
bus
C)
star
D)
mesh
E)
tree
81)
Which of the following network topologies is capable of covering the largest
distance?
A)
star network
B)
bus network
C)
ring network
D)
mesh network
E)
tree network
82)
Which of the following statements is true of a bus network topology?
A)
A bus network has the most complex wiring layout.
B)
Extending a bus network is more difficult to achieve than it is for other
topologies.
C)
A bus network topology enables all network nodes to receive the same message
through the network cable at the same time.
D)
The configuration of bus networks facilitates easy diagnosis and isolation of
network faults.
E)
In a bus network, every computer and device is connected to every other
computer and device.
83)
As per the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, which of the following
layers defines the way data is formatted, converted, and encoded?
A)
application layer
B)
transport layer
C)
presentation layer
D)
data link layer
E)
session layer
84)
According to the OSI model, the ________ layer defines the protocols for
structuring messages.
A)
physical
B)
session
C)
transport
D)
data link
E)
network
85)
According tot he OSI model, the physical layer
defines ________.
A)
the protocols for data routing to ensure that data
arrives at the correct destination
B)
the way data is formatted, converted, and encoded
C)
the mechanism for communicating with the transmission
media and interface hardware
D)
the way that application programs such as electronic
mail interact with the network
E)
the protocols for structuring messages
86)
A ________ is a device that converts digital signals from a computer into
analog signals so that telephone lines may be used as a transmission medium to
send and receive electronic data.
A)
modem
B)
LAN card
C)
network adapter
D)
PCI connector
E)
USB port
87)
A ________ is a PC expansion board that plugs into a computer so that it can be
connected to a network.
A)
transceiver
B)
multiport repeater
C)
cable router
D)
network interface card
E)
modular connector
88)
A(n) ________ is a piece of networking hardware that manages multiple access
points and can be used to manage transmission power and channel allocation to
establish desired coverage throughout a building and minimize interference
between individual access points.
A)
router
B)
wireless controller
C)
network switch
D)
modem
E)
network interface card
89)
Which of the following entities is responsible for managing global and country
code top-level domains, as well as global IP number space assignments?
A)
American Registry for Internet Numbers (ARIN)
B)
World Wide Web Consortium (W3C)
C)
Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
D)
Internet Governance Forum (IGF)
E)
European Organization for Nuclear Research (CERN)
90)
Which of the following Internet connectivity technologies enables data to be
sent over existing copper telephone lines by sending digital pulses in the
high-frequency area of telephone wires?
A)
integrated services digital network technology
B)
digital subscriber line technology
C)
dial-up service technology
D)
cable modem technology
E)
fiber to the home technology
91)
Computers working as servers on the Internet are known as ________.
A)
network adapters
B)
modems
C)
network switches
D)
Ethernet hubs
E)
Internet hosts
92)
A(n) ________ is a unique identifier that should be
created and used when designing a database for each type of entity, in order to
store and retrieve data accurately.
A)
foreign key
B)
surrogate key
C)
primary key
D)
superkey
E)
candidate key
93)
In which of the following database models does the DBMS view and present
entities as two-dimensional tables, with records as rows, and attributes as
columns?
A)
relational database model
B)
hierarchical database model
C)
network database model
D)
object-oriented database model
E)
semantic database model
94)
________ is a technique to make complex databases more efficient and more
easily handled by the DBMS.
A)
Assertion
B)
Exception handling
C)
Normalization
D)
Model elimination
E)
Structural induction