IM341 – Business Systems Analysis

Sample Test 2

Chapters 5, 6, 7, 8,

1.	Data flow diagrams allow you to: a. show the timing of data flows. b. model how data flow through an information system. c. demonstrate the sequencing of activities. d. show the relationship among entities. e. represent the internal structure and functionality of processes.
2.	Since data flow diagrams concentrate on the movement of data between processes, these diagrams are often referred to as: a. process models. b. data models. c. flow models. d. flow charts. e. logic models.
3.	Graphically representing the functions, or processes, that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute data between a system and its environment and between components within a system refers to: a. data modeling. b. structure modeling. c. process modeling. d. transition modeling. e. logic modeling.
4.	The diagram that shows the scope of the system, indicating what elements are inside and outside the system, is called a: a. context diagram. b. level-2 diagram. c. referencing diagram. d. representative diagram. e. decomposition diagram.
5.	Which of the following is not a process modeling deliverable? a. A context data flow diagram b. Thorough descriptions of each DFD component c. DFDs of the current physical system d. An entity relationship diagram e. DFDs of the new logical system
6.	Data contained on a customer order form would be represented on a data flow diagram as a: a. process. b. data flow. c. source. d. sink. e. relationship.
7.	Student data contained on an enrollment form would be represented on a data flow diagram as a: a. process. b. data flow. c. source. d. data store. e. relationship.
8.	Data in motion, moving from one place in a system to another, best describes a: a. data store. b. process. c. source. d. data flow. e. relationship.
9.	Data at rest, which may take the form of many different physical representations, best describes a: a. source. b. data store. c. data flow. d. process. e. relationship.
10.	A file folder containing orders would be represented on a data flow diagram as a: a. process. b. source. c. data flow. d. data store. e. relationship.
11.	A computer-based file containing employee information would be represented on a data flow diagram as a(n): a. data flow. b. source. c. data store. d. process. e. action stub.
12.	The calculation of an employee’s salary would be represented on a data flow diagram as a(n): a. data flow. b. source. c. data store. d. process. e. action stub.
13.	Recording a customer’s payment would be represented on a data flow diagram as a(n): a. process. b. source. c. data flow. d. data store. e. action stub.
14.	A supplier of auto parts to your company would be represented on a data flow diagram as a: a. process. b. source. c. data flow. d. data store. e. relationship.
15.	Which of the following would be considered when diagramming? a. The interactions occurring between sources and sinks b. How to provide sources and sinks direct access to stored data c. How to control or redesign a source or sink d. What a source or sink does with information or how it operates e. None of the above.
16.	The work or actions performed on data so that they are transformed, stored, or distributed defines: a. source. b. data store. c. data flow. d. process. e. action stub.
17.	The origin and/or destination of data, sometimes referred to as external entities defines: a. source. b. data store. c. data flow. d. process. e. predecessor.
18.	An arrow on a data flow diagram represents a(n): a. data store. b. data flow. c. process. d. source. e. action sequence.
19.	A square on a data flow diagram represents a: a. data store. b. data flow. c. process. d. source. e. predecessor.
20.	On a data flow diagram, a rectangle with rounded corners represents a(n): a. data store. b. data flow. c. process. d. source. e. action stub.
21.	On a data flow diagram, a rectangle with the right vertical line missing represents a: a. data store. b. data flow. c. process. d. source. e. relationship.
22.	Which of the following is a true statement regarding sources/sinks? a. Sources/sinks are always outside the information system and define the boundaries of the system. b. Data must originate outside a system from one or more sources. c. The system must produce information to one or more sinks. d. If any processing takes place inside the source/sink, we are not interested in it. e. All of the above are true statements.
23.	Which of the following is most likely a source/sink for a manufacturing system? a. A customer b. A supplier c. Another information system d. A bank e. All of the above.
24.	Which of the following is true regarding the context diagram? a. The process symbol is labeled “0.” b. The context diagram contains two processes. c. Data stores must be shown on the context diagram. d. The internal workings of the system are shown on the context diagram. e. The context diagram organizes the processes in a tree-like structure.
25.	A data flow diagram that represents a system’s major processes, data flows, and data stores at a high level of detail refers to a: a. context diagram. b. level-1 diagram. c. level-0 diagram. d. level-00 diagram. e. logic diagram.
26.	If two processes are connected by a data flow, they are said to: a. exhibit cohesion. b. share the same data. c. be coupled to each other. d. be strapped to each other. e. be intertwined.
27.	By placing a data store between two processes, this: a. decouples the processes. b. enables store and forward capabilities. c. enhances the flow of data between the processes. d. structures the processes. e. disintegrates the processes.
28.	A miracle process is one that: a. has only inputs. b. has only outputs. c. cannot be exploded further. d. has insufficient inputs to produce the associated processes. e. is connected directly to a source.
29.	A black hole is process that: a. has only inputs. b. has only outputs. c. has not been exploded to show enough detail. d. has insufficient inputs to produce the associated processes. e. generates output directly to a sink.
30.	Which of the following is a true statement regarding a data store? a. Data can move directly from one data store to another data store. b. Data stores illustrate relationships among entities. c. A data store has a noun phrase label. d. Data can move from an outside source to a data store. e. A data store shows data in motion.
31.	Which of the following is a true statement regarding data flows? a. A data flow may have double-ended arrows. b. A data flow to a data store means retrieve or use. c. A data flow from a data store means update. d. A join in a data flow means that exactly the same data comes from any of two or more different processes, data stores, or sources/sinks to a common location. e. A data flow represents data at rest.
32.	Which of the following is not a true statement regarding data flows? a. A fork in a data flow means that exactly the same data go from a common location to two or more different processes, data stores, or sources/sinks. b. A data flow can go directly back to the same process it leaves. c. A data flow has a noun label. d. A data flow has only one direction of flow between symbols. e. A data flow from a data store means retrieve or use.
33.	On a data flow diagram, you may: a. repeat data stores and processes. b. repeat sources/sinks and processes. c. only repeat processes. d. repeat relationships. e. repeat both data stores and sources/sinks.
34.	The act of going from a single system to several component processes refers to: a. structuring. b. balancing. c. decomposition. d. formatting. e. regeneration.
35.	The lowest level of DFDs are: a. level-0 diagrams. b. context diagrams. c. level-1 diagrams. d. primitive data flow diagrams. e. systematic diagrams.
36.	A DFD that is a result of three nested decompositions of a series of sub-processes from a process on a level-0 diagram describes a: a. level-3 diagram. b. level-1 diagram. c. level-2 diagram. d. primitive diagram. e. context diagram.
37.	The conservation of inputs and outputs to a data flow diagram process when that process is decomposed to a lower level defines: a. decomposition. b. balancing. c. flow conservation. d. data flow structuring. e. gap proofing.
38.	If a data flow appears on the context diagram and is also represented on a level-0 diagram, this would be referred to as: a. leveling. b. flow conservation. c. balancing. d. cohesion. e. coupling.
39.	If an input from a source appears on a level-0 diagram, it must: a. appear on the context diagram. b. be connected to a data flow. c. be connected to a sink. d. be connected to a data store. e. be connected to two entities.
40.	If your DFD contains data flows that do not lead anywhere, it is not: a. gap proof. b. a primitive diagram. c. complete. d. consistent. e. balanced.
41.	The extent to which all necessary components of a data flow diagram have been included and fully described defines: a. DFD consistency. b. DFD completeness. c. DFD gap proofing. d. DFD flexibility. e. DFD cohesion.
42.	Having a level-1 diagram with no level-0 diagram is an example of a: a. violation of completeness. b. violation of consistency. c. balancing error. d. structuring violation. e. cohesion error.
43.	The extent to which information contained on one level of a set of nested data flow diagrams is also included on other levels refers to: a. DFD consistency. b. DFD completeness. c. DFD gap proofing. d. DFD flexibility. e. DFD cohesion.
44.	When you believe that you have shown each business form or transaction, computer screen, and report as a single data flow, you have probably reached the: a. level-0 diagrams. b. ternary level diagrams. c. primitive data flow diagrams. d. secondary-level diagrams. e. context level diagrams.
45.	The lowest level of decomposition for a data flow diagram is called the: a. context diagram. b. level-0 diagram. c. level-1 diagram. d. primitive diagram. e. cohesive diagram.
46.	The process in analysis in which the analyst tries to discover discrepancies between two or more sets of data flow diagrams, representing two or more states of an information system, or discrepancies within a single DFD, is referred to as: a. requirements structuring. b. logic modeling. c. DFD validation. d. gap analysis. e. DFD stress testing.
47.	Techniques used for modeling system logic include: a. flow charts. b. decision tables. c. data flow diagrams. d. dialogue charts. e. entity relationship diagrams.
48.	Which of the following is a modified version of the English language that is useful for representing the logic in information system processes? a. Structured English b. COBOL c. Modified English d. Pseudocode e. Structured programming
49.	The part of a decision table that links conditions to actions is the section that contains the: a. action statements. b. rules. c. condition statements. d. decision stubs. e. relationship stubs.
50.	The part of a decision table that lists the actions that result for a given set of conditions is called: a. action stubs. b. condition stubs. c. rule section. d. execution stubs. e. processing stubs.
51.	Some systems developers believe that a data model is the most important part of the statement of information system requirements because: a. the characteristics of data captured during data modeling are crucial in the design of databases, programs, computer screens, and printed reports. b. data rather than processes are the most complex aspects of many modern information systems and thus require a central role in structuring system requirements. c. the characteristics about data are reasonably permanent. d. structural information about data is essential to generate programs automatically. e. of all of the above.
52.	Which of the following is a true statement? a. Data characteristics are dynamic. b. A data model explains the transient form of an organization. c. An information system design based on a data orientation, rather than a process or logic orientation, should have a longer useful life. d. Data flow paths are permanent. e. A data model graphically represents the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute data between a system and its environment and among components within a system.
53.	Conceptual data modeling is typically done in parallel with other requirements analysis and structuring steps during: a. systems planning and selection. b. systems design. c. systems analysis. d. systems implementation and operation. e. systems evaluation.
54.	Process, logic, and data model descriptions of a system must be consistent and complete since: a. they each describe different but complementary views of the same information system. b. they are prepared during the analysis phase. c. they are constructed in parallel by separate analyst teams. d. a data model indicates when the data are processed. e. a data model shows how the data are processed.
55.	The most common format used for data modeling is: a. state-transition diagramming. b. entity-relationship diagramming. c. process modeling. d. logic modeling. e. a flowchart.
56.	During systems analysis: a. a conceptual data model (E-R with attributes) is prepared. b. a logical model (relational) is prepared. c. physical files and database designs are prepared. d. an enterprise-wide data model is prepared. e. database and file definitions are prepared.
57.	During systems planning and selection: a. a conceptual data model (E-R with attributes) is prepared. b. a logical model (relational) is prepared. c. physical files and database designs are prepared. d. an enterprise-wide data model is prepared. e. database and file definitions are prepared.
58.	During systems design: a. a conceptual data model (E-R with attributes) is prepared. b. a logical model (relational) is prepared. c. a conceptual data model (E-R with only entities for the specific project) is prepared. d. an enterprise-wide data model is prepared. e. database and file definitions are prepared.
59.	During systems implementation and operation: a. a conceptual data model (E-R with attributes) is prepared. b. a logical model (relational) is prepared. c. physical files and database designs are prepared. d. an enterprise-wide data model is prepared. e. database and file definitions are prepared.
60.	The primary deliverable from the conceptual data modeling step within the analysis phase is: a. a state-transition diagram. b. an entity-relationship diagram. c. a context data flow diagram. d. a decision table. e. Structured English.
61.	Which of the following is produced and analyzed during conceptual data modeling? a. An entity relationship diagram for the project’s application b. A data dialogue diagram for the project’s application c. A Gantt chart for the whole database from which the new application’s data are extracted d. A Network diagram for the whole database from which the new application’s data are extracted e. A data flow diagram that shows how the new system will be physically implemented
62.	Which of the following is a true statement? a. A data model explains what the organization does and what rules govern how work is done in the organization. b. To construct a data model, you need to know how data are processed. c. To construct a data model, you need to know when data are processed. d. A data flow diagram graphically illustrates the structure and relationships among data items. e. During conceptual modeling, the preparation of a Network diagram is necessary.
63.	The data modeling perspective that derives the business rules for a data model from an intimate understanding of the nature of the business, rather than from any specific information requirements in screens, reports, or business forms, is referred to as the: a. top-down approach. b. bottom-up approach. c. overview approach. d. business approach. e. conceptual approach.
64.	Asking system users and business managers “How many instances of each object might exist?” would help determine: a. the data entities and their descriptions. b. the candidate key. c. attributes and secondary keys. d. relationships and their cardinality and degrees. e. integrity rules, minimum and maximum cardinality, and time dimensions of data.
65.	Asking system users and managers “Who is responsible for establishing legitimate values for these data?” helps determine: a. the candidate key. b. security controls and understanding who really knows the meaning of data. c. relationships and their cardinality and degrees. d. attributes and secondary keys. e. integrity rules, minimum and maximum cardinality, and time dimensions of data.
66.	Asking system users and business managers “Is each activity or event always handled the same way or are there special circumstances?” helps determine: a. the candidate key. b. security controls and understanding who really knows the meaning of data. c. relationships and their cardinality and degrees. d. attributes and secondary keys. e. integrity rules, minimum and maximum cardinality, and time dimensions of data.
67.	Gathering the information you need for data modeling by reviewing specific business documents handled within the system describes the: a. top-down approach. b. bottom-up approach. c. investigative approach. d. business approach. e. conceptual approach.
68.	Reviewing computer screens, reports, and business forms for the purpose of gaining an understanding of data is indicative of the: a. investigative approach. b. business approach. c. bottom-up approach. d. top-down approach. e. conceptual approach.
69.	A detailed, logical, and graphical representation of the entities, associations, and data elements for an organization or business area best describes a(n): a. logic model. b. data flow diagram. c. entity-relationship diagram. d. structure chart. e. data tree.
70.	Which of the following symbols are used on entity-relationship diagrams? a. an arrow b. a square c. a diamond d. two parallel lines e. a circle
71.	On an entity-relationship diagram, a diamond represents a(n): a. data flow. b. entity. c. multivalued attribute. d. repeating group. e. relationship.
72.	On an entity-relationship diagram, a rectangle represents a(n): a. data flow. b. entity. c. multivalued attribute. d. repeating group. e. relationship.
73.	A person, place, object, event, or concept in the user environment about which the organization wishes to maintain data refers to a(n): a. attribute. b. data element. c. relationship. d. entity. e. process.
74.	A product is an example of a(n): a. data element. b. attribute. c. entity. d. relationship. e. process.
75.	A renewal is an example of a(n): a. data element. b. attribute. c. entity. d. relationship. e. action stub.
76.	A collection of entities that share common properties or characteristics best defines: a. entity type. b. entity instance. c. entity occurrence. d. entity collection. e. data set.
77.	A single occurrence of an entity type defines: a. entity instance. b. entity appearance. c. attribute. d. data element. e. multivalued attribute.
78.	Which of the following is a true statement? a. Data entities correspond to sources/sinks on a data flow diagram. b. Relationships correspond to data flows on a data flow diagram. c. A data entity will have many possible instances. d. Verbs are used to name entity types. e. An entity type is described many times in the data model.
79.	A named property or characteristic of an entity that is of interest to the organization defines: a. attribute. b. relationship. c. instance. d. associative entity. e. data flow.
80.	An attribute (or combination of attributes) that uniquely identifies each instance of an entity type defines: a. data element occurrence. b. trigger. c. candidate key. d. associative entity. e. data marker.
81.	When selecting an identifier, one should: a. use intelligent keys. b. use large composite keys instead of single-attribute surrogate keys. c. choose a candidate key that will not change its value over the life of each instance of the entity type. d. choose a candidate key such that for each instance of the entity, the attribute is guaranteed to have valid values or is null. e. choose a candidate key that allows for duplicate values.
82.	Vehicle identification number, color, weight, and horsepower best exemplify: a. entities. b. entity types. c. data markers. d. identifiers. e. attributes.
83.	A candidate key that has been selected as the unique, identifying characteristic for an entity type is called a(n): a. attribute. b. identifier. c. secondary key. d. gerund. e. index.
84.	On an entity-relationship diagram, the entity’s identifier is: a. identified by using a double-lined ellipse. b. underlined on an E-R diagram. c. bold on an E-R diagram. d. written in all capital letters on an E-R diagram. e. placed in italics.
85.	An attribute that can have more than one value for each entity instance is referred to as: a. a gerund. b. a multivalued attribute. c. a nonexclusive attribute. d. a data replica. e. none of the above.
86.	If each employee can have more than one skill, then skill is referred to as a: a. gerund. b. multivalued attribute. c. nonexclusive attribute. d. repeating attribute. e. data replica.
87.	A set of two or more multivalued attributes that are logically related defines: a. relationship. b. associative entity. c. repeating group. d. class. e. repeating entity.
88.	An association between the instances of one or more entity types that is of interest to the organization best defines: a. occurrence. b. relationship. c. natural connection. d. cardinality. e. entity link.
89.	Which of the following is a true statement? a. The goal of conceptual modeling is to capture as much of the meaning of data as is possible. b. The efficiencies gained by maintaining systems at the rule rather than code level drastically reduce cost. c. If a thorough repository of data descriptions is kept, the system can be regenerated as the business rules change. d. The more details about data that we can model, the better the system we can design and build. e. All of the above are true statements.
90.	The number of entity types that participate in a relationship refers to: a. degree. b. association. c. count. d. cardinality. e. normalization.
91.	If STUDENT and COURSE participate in a relationship, this is an example of a(n): a. unary relationship. b. binary relationship. c. ternary relationship. d. extraordinary relationship. e. coupled relationship.
92.	A ternary relationship occurs when a relationship exists among instances of: a. the same entity. b. two entity types. c. three entity types. d. four entity types. e. nine entity types.
93.	A relationship between the instances of one entity type is a: a. unary relationship. b. binary relationship. c. ternary relationship. d. singular occurrence. e. partnership occurrence.
94.	A relationship between instances of two entity types is a: a. unary relationship. b. binary relationship. c. ternary relationship. d. multiple occurrence. e. partnership occurrence.
95.	A simultaneous relationship among instances of three entity types is a: a. unary relationship. b. binary relationship. c. ternary relationship. d. multiple occurrence. e. recursive join.
96.	The number of instances of entity B that can (or must) be associated with each instance of entity A refers to: a. cardinality. b. domain. c. ternary occurrence. d. participation level. e. join level.
97.	The minimum number of instances of entity B that may be associated with each instance of entity A defines the: a. degree of the relationship. b. minimum cardinality of the relationship. c. maximum cardinality of the relationship. d. domain of the relationship. e. join level.
98.	If entity B is a mandatory participant, then: a. the minimum cardinality of the relationship is two. b. the minimum cardinality of the relationship cannot be defined. c. the minimum cardinality of the relationship is one. d. the minimum cardinality of the relationship is optional. e. the join level is not null.
99.	A “many” maximum cardinality is noted on the E-R diagram by: a. placing a crow’s foot notation near the entity. b. placing a zero through the line near the entity. c. using a double ellipse near the entity. d. placing two slash marks near the entity. e. using brackets.
100.	A relationship that the data modeler chooses to model as an entity type best defines: a. recursive relationship. b. associative entity. c. domain. d. complex relationship. e. complex entity.
101.	As a result of this sub-phase, the analyst knows what the current system does and knows what the users would like the replacement system to do. a. Requirements structuring b. Requirements determination c. Alternative generation and selection d. Project initiation and planning e. Logical design
102.	As a result of this sub-phase, the analyst understands what forms the replacement system’s process flow, process logic, and data should take, at a logical level independent of any physical implementation. a. Requirements structuring b. Requirements determination c. Alternative generation and selection d. Project initiation and planning e. Logical design
103.	To bring analysis to a conclusion, the analyst should: a. determine what forms the replacement system’s process flow, process logic, and data should take, at a logical level independent of any physical implementation. b. define what the current system does and identify what the users would like the replacement system to do. c. take the structured requirements and transform them into several alternative design strategies. d. state the general functions within the system to be analyzed. e. work with a customer to establish work standards and communication procedures.
104.	Which of the following is a sub-phase of systems analysis? a. Project initiation b. Alternative generation and selection c. Project planning d. Logical design e. Physical design
105.	When an analyst transforms all of the information she has gathered and structured into some concrete ideas about the nature of the design for the new or replacement information system, this is referred to as: a. the design strategy. b. requirements determination. c. requirements structuring. d. logical design. e. systems planning and selection.
106.	Part of generating a design strategy is: a. specifying in general terms what types of information and information processing are needed. b. stating in general terms what functions within the system or department will be analyzed. c. programming the system, building all data files, and testing the new system. d. determining how the replacement system can be acquired by using a combination of sources inside and outside the organization. e. working with a customer to establish work standards and communication procedures.
107.	Selecting the best alternative system involves: a. generating a comprehensive set of alternative design strategies. b. selecting the alternative design strategy that is most likely to result in the desired information system, given all of the organizational, economic, and technical constraints that limit what can be done. c. developing all technology and organizational specifications necessary to implement the new information system. d. working with a customer to establish work standards and communication procedures. e. both a and b.
108.	Which of the following includes statements on the system’s functionality, hardware and system software platform, and method for acquisition? a. Problem statement b. Requirements statement c. Design strategy d. Systems service request e. Statement of work
109.	A particular approach to developing an information system best describes: a. design strategy. b. problem statement. c. requirements statement. d. scope. e. systems service request.
110.	Shaping alternative system design strategies involves: a. enumerating different potential implementation environments. b. proposing different ways to source or acquire the various sets of capabilities for the different implementation environments. c. dividing requirements into different sets of capabilities. d. all of the above. e. none of the above.
111.	In theory, if there are four sources of application software, two implementation environments, and three sets of requirements, how many design strategies are possible? a. 4 b. 24 c. 9 d. 2 e. 27
112.	Who is responsible for making the ultimate decision about which systems design strategy to follow? a. Systems analysts b. Management c. Sources d. Programmers e. Technology specialists
113.	The primary deliverable for alternative generation and selection is a(n): a. updated Baseline Project Plan. b. business case. c. request for proposal. d. requirements statement. e. logical model.
114.	Which of the following are deliverables for alternative generation and selection? a. Identifying at least three substantively different system design strategies for building the replacement information system b. Identifying a design strategy judged most likely to lead to the most desirable information system c. Updating the Baseline Project Plan to detail the work necessary to turn the selected design strategy into the desired replacement system d. All of the above. e. None of the above.
115.	A good number of alternatives to generate is: a. 3. b. 2. c. 4. d. 5. e. 7.
116.	The most conservative solutions in terms of the effort, cost, and technology involved in developing a new system are the: a. low-end solutions. b. high-end solutions. c. midrange solutions. d. constraint-dependent solutions. e. requirements-dependent solutions.
117.	The alternative that goes beyond simply solving the problem in question and focuses instead on systems that contain many extra features users may desire is referred to as a: a. Low-end alternative. b. High-end alternative. c. Quality-focused alternative. d. Requirements-dependent alternative. e. Constraints-dependent alternative.
118.	Which of the following types of alternatives represent compromise solutions? a. low-end alternatives b. high-end alternatives c. mid-range alternatives d. requirements-dependent alternatives e. constraints-dependent alternatives
119.	The minimum requirements for the new system are called: a. essential features. b. desired features. c. minimum features. d. mandatory features. e. designated features.
120.	Features that everyone agrees are necessary to solve the problem or meet the opportunity are called: a. desired features. b. essential features. c. mandatory features. d. minimum features. e. requested features.
121.	Identifying mandatory features by surveying users and other stakeholders who have been involved in requirements determination would occur: a. near the end of the analysis phase, after all requirements have been structured and analyzed. b. near the end of the project identification and selection phase, after a formal request to conduct a project to design and develop an information systems solution has been approved. c. during the logical design phase, while detailed function specifications of all data, forms, reports, screens, and processing rules for all aspects of the system are prepared. d. during systems planning and selection. e. during systems implementation and operation.
122.	System features might include: a. data kept in system files. b. system outputs. c. analyses to generate the information in system outputs. d. expectations on accessibility, response time, or turn-around time for system functions. e. all of the above.
123.	Which of the following is a true statement? a. Mandatory features screen out possible solutions; essential features are the important capabilities of a system that will serve as the primary basis for comparison of different design strategies. b. Essential features screen out possible solutions; mandatory features are the important capabilities of a system that will serve as the primary basis for comparison of different design strategies. c. Mandatory features screen out possible solutions; essential features are those that users could live without. d. Essential features screen out possible solutions; mandatory features are those that users could live without. e. Desired features screen out possible solutions; mandatory features are the important capabilities of a system that will serve as the primary basis for comparison of different design strategies.
124.	Constraints on systems development may include such factors as: a. available financial and human resources. b. elements of the current system that cannot change. c. legal and contractual restrictions. d. a date when the current system is needed. e. all of the above.
125.	Which of the following is a true statement? a. Low-end alternatives will meet every constraint. b. High-end alternatives will meet every constraint. c. Low-end alternatives fulfill every wish end users have for the new system. d. Low-end alternatives will provide all desired features. e. Low-end alternatives will provide all essential features.
126.	The practice of turning over responsibility of some to all of an organization’s information systems applications and operations to an outside firm is referred to as: a. realignment. b. downsizing. c. outsourcing. d. time sharing. e. systems consignment.
127.	Hiring a company to run your applications at your site on your computers is an example of: a. a turnkey system. b. outsourcing. c. downsizing. d. realignment. e. systems consignment.
128.	Sources of software include: a. hardware manufacturers. b. packaged software producers. c. custom software producers. d. enterprise-wide solutions. e. all of the above.
129.	According to the text, Oracle ranks: a. number two in the software market. b. number one in the software market. c. number five in the software market. d. number four in the software market. e. number eight in the software market.
130.	According to the text, IBM ranks: a. number two in the software market. b. number one in the software market. c. number five in the software market. d. number four in the software market. e. number eight in the software market.
131.	According to the text, Microsoft ranks: a. number two in the software market. b. number one in the software market. c. number five in the software market. d. number four in the software market. e. number eight in the software market.
132.	Off-the-shelf software systems that cannot be modified to meet the specific needs of a particular organization are sometimes called: a. custom software systems. b. in-house developed systems. c. turnkey systems. d. standard systems. e. specialized systems.
133.	A system that integrates individual traditional business functions into a series of modules so that a single transaction occurs seamlessly within a single information system rather than several separate systems best defines: a. custom software systems. b. coordinated systems. c. turnkey systems. d. enterprise solutions. e. centralized systems.
134.	The choice to acquire software from outside sources is made: a. at the beginning of the analysis phase. b. at the middle of the analysis phase. c. at the end of the analysis phase. d. at the end of the physical design phase. e. at the beginning of the project initiation phase.
135.	An organization should acquire software from hardware manufacturers: a. when the supported task is generic. b. when system software and utilities are needed. c. when the task requires custom support and the system cannot be built internally. d. when the resources and staff are available and the system must be built from scratch. e. for complete systems that cross boundaries.
136.	An organization should acquire software from in-house developers: a. when the supported task is generic. b. when system software and utilities are needed. c. when the task requires custom support and the system can’t be built internally. d. when the resources and staff are available and the system must be built from scratch. e. for complete systems that cross boundaries.
137.	An organization should acquire software from packaged software producers: a. when the supported task is generic. b. when system software and utilities are needed. c. when the task requires custom support and the system can’t be built internally. d. when the resources and staff are available and the system must be built from scratch. e. for complete systems that cross boundaries.
138.	An organization should acquire software from custom software producers: a. when the supported task is generic. b. when system software and utilities are needed. c. when the task requires custom support and the system can’t be built internally. d. when the resources and staff are available and the system must be built from scratch. e. for complete systems that cross boundaries.
139.	An organization should acquire software from enterprise-wide solution providers: a. when the supported task is generic. b. when system software and utilities are needed. c. when the task requires custom support and the system can’t be built internally. d. when the resources and staff are available and the system must be built from scratch. e. for complete systems that cross functional boundaries.
140.	Which of the following are common criteria to consider when selecting off-the-shelf software? a. Flexibility b. Vendor viability c. Functionality d. Cost e. All of the above.
141.	Which of the following are ways of validating purchased software information? a. Reviewing software documentation and technical marketing literature b. Sending prospective vendors a questionnaire asking specific questions about their packages c. Using the software yourself and running it through a series of tests based on the criteria for selecting software d. Obtaining feedback from other users of the software e. All of the above.
142.	Advantages to running your new system on the existing platform include all of the following except: a. some software components of your new system will only run on particular platforms with particular operating systems. b. the information systems staff is familiar with the existing platform. c. the odds of integrating your new application system with existing applications are enhanced. d. costs are lower. e. there are no added costs of converting the old systems to the new platform.
143.	The document sent to vendors asking them to propose hardware and software that will meet the requirements of your new system is called a: a. requirements statement. b. request for proposal. c. Baseline Project Plan. d. business case. e. systems service request.
144.	All of the following are true statements except: a. implementing a new information system is just as much an organizational change process as it is a technical process. b. new systems often entail new ways of performing the same work, new working relationships, and new skills. c. implementing a new information system is primarily a technical process. d. systems implementation involves training users. e. when implementing a new information system, disruptions in work procedures have to be found and addressed.
145.	The system requirement assigned the highest priority for Hoosier Burger’s new inventory control system was: a. management must be able to easily enter shipments into the system as soon as they are received. b. the new system must be operational in no more than six months from the start of the contract. c. the system must automatically determine whether and when a new order should be placed. d. management should be able to determine at any time approximately what inventory levels are for any given item in stock. e. management must be able to pay bills that are due and record them as paid.
146.	Which of the following is a true statement regarding the weighted factor approach? a. Requirements and constraints must be equally weighted. b. Requirements should be made more important than constraints. c. Constraints should be made more important than requirements. d. Weights are objective. e. None of the above is a true statement.
147.	During the alternative generation and selection stage, which of the following is a true statement concerning the updating of the Baseline Project Plan? a. Every section of the Baseline Project Plan report is updated. b. The feasibility assessment section will include in one of its subsections a detailed schedule for the activities in the design phases and any more details that can be anticipated for later phases. c. As part of the management issues section, a subsection will outline issues for management that have been discovered during analysis. d. It is important to show in the feasibility assessment section how well the actual conduct of the analysis phase matched the planned activities. e. All of the above are true statements.
148.	The ability to seamlessly upgrade the capabilities of the system through either hardware upgrades, software upgrades, or both best describes: a. system maintenance. b. system enhancement. c. value-added improvements. d. scalable. e. design strategy.
149.	A computer that is connected to the Internet and stores files written in HTML, which are publicly available through an Internet application best describes: a. application server. b. thin client. c. peer. d. Web server. e. front-end processor.
150.	A “middle tier” software and hardware combination that lies between the Web server and the corporate network and systems best describes: a. application server. b. thin client. c. peer. d. Web server. e. front-end processor.
151.	Human interface design is performed during: a. systems planning and selection. b. systems analysis. c. systems design. d. systems implementation and operation. e. requirements structuring.
152.	Which of the following is a method for representing human-computer dialogues? a. Logic modeling b. Sequence modeling c. Process modeling d. Dialogue diagramming e. Transition diagramming
153.	System inputs and outputs are produced at the end of the: a. systems analysis phase of the SDLC. b. systems design phase of the SDLC. c. systems planning and selection phase of the SDLC. d. systems implementation and operation phase of the SDLC. e. logic modeling stage.
154.	Which of the following is the standard method of gathering and displaying information on the Internet? a. Dialogue interaction b. Form interaction c. Report interaction d. Menu selection e. VRML interaction
155.	A business document that contains some predefined data and may include some areas where additional data are to be filled in best describes a: a. written procedure. b. turnaround document. c. form. d. report. e. coupon.
156.	Which of the following is an example of a form? a. Invoice b. Pie chart c. Mailing labels d. Weekly sales summaries by region and salesperson e. Automated teller machine transaction layout
157.	Which of the following is an example of a form? a. Invoice b. Pie chart c. Mailing labels d. An electronic spreadsheet e. Weekly sales summaries by region and salesperson
158.	Which of the following best describes a business document that contains only predefined data? a. Electronic spreadsheet b. Turnaround document c. Form d. Report e. Coupon
159.	Which of the following is an example of a report? a. Mailing labels b. Computer sign-on screen c. Electronic spreadsheet d. Automated teller machine transaction layout e. Class registration sheet
160.	Each of the following are true statements except: a. every output form or report is a data flow produced by a process on a data flow diagram. b. forms have a stylized format and are usually not in simple rows and columns. c. a report is only for reading and often contains data about multiple unrelated records in a computer file. d. a form typically contains data from only one record. e. systems inputs and outputs are produced during the systems implementation and operation phase of the systems development life cycle.
161.	Form and report design: a. generally follows a prototyping approach. b. generally follows a structured methodology. c. generally follows a structured design approach. d. generally follows a structured analysis approach. e. uses Structured English to prepare the design specifications.
162.	When designing a form or report, which of the following is a fundamental question? a. Who will use the form or report? b. What is the purpose of the form or report? c. When is the form or report needed and used? d. Where does the form or report need to be delivered and used? e. All of the above are fundamental questions.
163.	The major deliverables associated with the human interface design stage are: a. process models. b. the Baseline Project Plan and structure charts. c. logic models. d. design specifications. e. program specifications.
164.	Which of the following is the design specification section that provides a general overview of the characteristics of the target users, tasks, systems, and environmental factors in which the form or report will be used? a. System description b. Narrative overview c. Sample design d. Testing and usability assessment e. Project overview
165.	Which part of the design specification explains to those who will actually develop the final form why this form exists and how it will be used so that they can make the appropriate implementation decisions? a. System description b. Narrative overview c. Sample design d. Testing and usability assessment e. Project overview
166.	Designing usable forms and reports requires: a. prototyping. b. data modeling. c. active interaction with end users. d. process modeling. e. using structured analysis.
167.	Which of the following is a guideline for designing forms and reports? a. Design an easy navigation system b. Balance the layout c. Include meaningful information d. Use meaningful titles e. All of the above are guidelines for designing forms and reports.
168.	Providing a current date that identifies when the form or report was generated corresponds to the form and report guideline of: a. design an easy navigation system. b. balance the layout. c. include meaningful information. d. use meaningful titles. e. none of the above.
169.	Making sure that all data and entry fields are clearly labeled corresponds to the following form and report guideline: a. design an easy navigation system. b. balance the layout. c. include meaningful information. d. use meaningful titles. e. none of the above.
170.	Commonly used methods for highlighting include: a. blinking and audible tones. b. color differences. c. intensity differences. d. size differences. e. all of the above.
171.	Commonly used methods for highlighting include each of the following except: a. reverse video. b. boxing. c. spacing. d. underlining. e. all capital letters.
172.	Each of the following is a true statement about highlighting except: a. highlighting techniques can be used singularly or in combination, depending upon the level of emphasis desired by the designer. b. highlighting should be used conservatively. c. highlighting methods should be consistently selected and used based upon the level of importance of the emphasized information. d. highlighting should be used as frequently as possible to draw the user to or away from certain information and to group together related information. e. it is important to examine how a particular highlighting method appears on all possible output devices that could be used with the system.
173.	Which of the following is a guideline for displaying text? a. Use double spacing if space permits. b. Do not hyphenate words between lines. c. Left-justify text and leave a ragged right margin. d. Display text in mixed upper- and lowercase and use conventional punctuation. e. All of the above are guidelines for displaying text.
174.	Each of the following is a guideline for displaying text except: a. use abbreviations and acronyms instead of full text. b. do not hyphenate words between lines. c. left-justify text and leave a ragged right margin. d. display text in mixed upper- and lowercase and use conventional punctuation. e. use double spacing if space permits.
175.	Which of the following are general guidelines for displaying tables and lists? a. All columns and rows should have meaningful labels. b. Place a blank line between every five rows in long columns. c. Use the same family of typefaces within and across displays and reports. d. Allow white space on printed reports for the user to write notes. e. All of the above are guidelines for displaying tables and lists.
176.	Which of the following is not a general guideline for displaying tables and lists? a. Labels should be separated from other information by using highlighting. b. Avoid overly fancy fonts. c. Columns should have at least two spaces between them. d. Right-justify textual data, and use a short line length. e. Similar information displayed in multiple columns should be sorted vertically.
177.	Which of the following is not a true statement regarding paper versus electronic reports? a. Ink-jet printers and laser printers produce reports that look identical to the display screen. b. Impact printers can exactly replicate a screen report to paper. c. Impact printers are very fast, very reliable, and relatively inexpensive. d. Impact printers are mainly used for producing large batches of reports. e. When designing forms and reports for use with impact printers, you may be limited in the range of formatting, text types, and highlighting options.
178.	Which of the following focuses on how information is provided to and captured from users? a. Structure chart b. Flow chart c. Entity-relationship diagram d. PERT diagram e. Interface and dialogue design
179.	When designing interfaces and dialogues, you follow a: a. prototyping approach. b. structured methodology approach. c. structured design approach. d. structured analysis approach. e. Structured English approach.
180.	The way a user can move from one display to another best describes: a. dialogue sequence. b. transition plan. c. menu-driven interface. d. screen sequence. e. computer interface.
181.	When designing the navigation procedures within your system, the primary concerns are: a. the design of between-field navigation and the ability to provide feedback. b. grouping data fields into logical categories and assigning group labels. c. flexibility and consistency. d. formatting and meaningful labels. e. spacing and color differences.
182.	Which of the following functional requirements are required for providing smooth and easy navigation within a form? a. Cursor-control capabilities b. Editing capabilities c. Exit capabilities d. Help capabilities e. All of the above.
183.	Movement to another screen corresponds to the functional requirement of: a. cursor-control capabilities. b. editing capabilities. c. exit capabilities. d. help capabilities. e. formatting capabilities.
184.	Which of the following is not a rule for structuring data entry fields? a. Never require the user to enter information that is already available within the system. b. Users should not be required to enter information that can be easily computed by the system. c. Require users to specify the dimensional units of a particular value. d. All data entered onto a screen should automatically justify in a standard format. e. Always place a caption adjacent to fields.
185.	Which of the following is not a rule for structuring data entry fields? a. Never require data that is already online or that can be computed. b. Always provide default values when appropriate. c. Data entries should not be justified. d. Always place a caption adjacent to fields. e. Provide context-sensitive help when appropriate.
186.	Reversing the sequence of one or more characters in a field is called: a. transposing. b. transcripting. c. appending. d. truncating. e. hashing.
187.	Entering invalid data into a field describes: a. transposing. b. transcripting. c. appending. d. truncating. e. hashing.
188.	Testing to assure that data is of proper type is the purpose of the: a. expected values validation test. b. range validation test. c. class or composition validation test. d. values validation test. e. self-checking digits validation test.
189.	Testing to assure that data conforms to a standard format is the purpose of the: a. missing data validation test. b. pictures templates validation test. c. reasonableness validation test. d. size validation test. e. self-checking digits validation test.
190.	“Please wait while I open the file” is an example of: a. status information. b. a remark. c. a warning message. d. a prompting cue. e. a class or composition validation test.
191.	Using lists to break information into manageable pieces conforms to the SOS guideline of: a. shortcuts. b. organize. c. simplicity. d. show. e. sequence.
192.	The ability to provide field-level help is often referred to as: a. context-sensitive help. b. screen-level help. c. systems-level help. d. application-level help. e. user-level help.
193.	The sequence of interaction between a user and a system best describes a(n): a. interface. b. discussion. c. dialogue. d. session. e. listing.
194.	The technique where users must confirm their intention twice before being allowed to proceed is called: a. double-confirmation. b. double-checking. c. replacement confirmation. d. validity confirmation. e. feedback confirmation.
195.	The guideline specifying that dialogues be logically grouped and have a beginning, middle, and end is: a. closure. b. shortcuts and sequence. c. consistency. d. control. e. feedback.
196.	The guideline specifying that dialogues be simple for users to enter information and navigate between screens is: a. navigation. b. ease. c. shortcuts and sequence. d. reversal. e. feedback.
197.	A formal method for designing and representing human-computer dialogues using box and line diagrams is referred to as: a. interface design. b. dialogue diagramming. c. conversation modeling. d. entity-relationship diagramming. e. logic modeling.
198.	Which of the following is a technique for showing users where they are in a Web site by placing a series of “tabs” on a Web page that shows users where they are and where they have been? a. Cookie crumbs b. Site markers c. Data markers d. Site locators e. Site maps
199.	The use of small, simple images to allow a Web page to be displayed more quickly best describes: a. icons. b. lightweight graphics. c. cookie crumbs. d. MPEG files. e. template-based HTML.
200.	Templates used to display and process common attributes of a higher-level and more abstract items best describes: a. object-oriented templates. b. CGI scripts. c. Java. d. template-based HTML. e. template-based VRML.